Control of Expression Random Retrieval

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

2 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

3 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

4 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

5 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

6 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

7 / 20

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

8 / 20

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

9 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

10 / 20

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

11 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

12 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

13 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

14 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

15 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

16 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

17 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

18 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

19 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

20 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

4 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

5 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

6 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

7 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

8 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

10 / 20

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

11 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

12 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

13 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

14 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

15 / 20

What is an autosome?

16 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

17 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

18 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

19 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

2 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

3 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

4 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

5 / 20

GABA is a neurotransmitter released in some inhibitory synapses in the brain. GABA causes negatively charged chloride ions to enter postsynaptic neurones. Explain how this inhibits postsynaptic neurones

6 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

7 / 20

True or False: Synapses can only transmit an impulse in one direction?

8 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

9 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

10 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

11 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

12 / 20

Name stage 5 on the above diagram ( spell it carefully!)

13 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

14 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

15 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

16 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

18 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

19 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

20 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Many decomposers secrete enzymes to digest organic matter, then absorb the products they require. The digested products which are not required remain in the soil. The digestion of which organic substance will result in the presence of ammonia in the soil?

2 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

3 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

4 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

5 / 20

What should go in box 'X'?

6 / 20

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

7 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

8 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

9 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

10 / 20

Name the above process: The ______ _________

11 / 20

Where does glycolysis occur?

12 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

13 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

14 / 20

Name the technique detailed in the above diagram ( spell it correctly!)

15 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. In each trial scientists collected oxygen for 15 minutes. Calculate the difference in oxygen produced from mutant plants at low and high light intensities at a light intensity of 500 μmol photons m–2s–1. Measured in μmol O2 mg–1 hour.

16 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

17 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

18 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in substance A?

19 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

20 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

3 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

4 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

5 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

6 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

7 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

8 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

9 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

10 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

11 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

12 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

13 / 20

How can charged ions cross a plasma membrane?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

14 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

15 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

16 / 20

How many phosphate groups are present in hexose bisphosphate?

17 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are required to generate TWO molecules of glucose ?

18 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

19 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

20 / 20

Name structure E

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

2 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

3 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

4 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

5 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

6 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

7 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

8 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

9 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

10 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

11 / 20

What is 'Guano'?

12 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

13 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

14 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated in aerobic respiration from one glucose molecule entering glycolysis, to the end of the ETC?

 

15 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

16 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

17 / 20

How many pyruvate molecules are made from one glucose molecule in glycolysis?

18 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

19 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

20 / 20

What is structure D?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

2 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which type of organism carry out process A?

3 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

4 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

5 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

6 / 20

Name molecule 'Z'

7 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. If IDH1 acted as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme, how would it reduce enzyme activity?

8 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

9 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

10 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

11 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

12 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. What is the saturation point of Normal plants grown in high light?

13 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

14 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

15 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

16 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

17 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

18 / 20

Name substance C

19 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

20 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

2 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

3 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

4 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

5 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

6 / 20

If the concentration of neurotransmitter secreted is very low, then threshold may not be reached. What term describes the process of increasing neurotransmitter release? either by multiple presynaptic neurones forming a single synapse or increasing the frequency of neurotransmitter release. Type your answer

 

7 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

8 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

9 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

11 / 20

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

12 / 20

True or False - The speed of conduction along an unmyelinated neurone is around 5 m/s ( jogging pace).

13 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

14 / 20

True or False: If too few sodium channels are opened by a stimulus on an neurone membrane, then no action potential is generated.

15 / 20

Name protein B in the above diagram.

16 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

17 / 20

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

18 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

19 / 20

Which of the following is true?

20 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

2 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

3 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

4 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

5 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

6 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

7 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

8 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

9 / 20

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

10 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

11 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

12 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

13 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

14 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

15 / 20

Drosophila is a type of fruit fly which is used in many genetic experiments. It has two alleles for eye colour : Red ( R) and White (r). If 0.8 of the alleles are red, how many are white?

16 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

18 / 20

What is the definition of 'homozygous'?

19 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'genotype'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

2 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

3 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

4 / 20

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

5 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

6 / 20

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

7 / 20

What is 'Epigenetics'?

8 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

9 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

10 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

11 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

12 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

13 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

14 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

15 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

16 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

17 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

18 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

19 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

75

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

2 / 20

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

3 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

4 / 20

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm3 min-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

5 / 20

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

6 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

7 / 20

In which direction ( if any) , would the curve be for human foetal haemoglobin?

8 / 20

The blood and water flow in opposite directions, what is this called?

9 / 20

Emphysema is caused by what?

10 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

11 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are they a similar volume (within 5% difference)?

12 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

13 / 20

True or false : Active transport can go down a concentration gradient, or up a concentration gradient.

14 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

15 / 20

Why must the solution used to homogenise be cold?

16 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only move in one direction along the template strand.

17 / 20

Explain why line B forms a plateau:

18 / 20

Which points on the above graph show when the enzyme is denatured?

19 / 20

What colour shows a positive result?

20 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

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39

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What does ATP stand for?

2 / 20

How many types of organic base are there in DNA and RNA?

3 / 20

How do competitive inhibitors bring about a decrease in rate?

4 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

5 / 20

Which letter on the above graph is the ' Saturation' point?

6 / 20

Which letter on the above graph shows when the enzyme is denatured?

7 / 20

This model of enzyme action has now been replaced by another more recent one. What is the more recent model called?

8 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

9 / 20

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains: i)Hydrogen Bonds ii) Ionic Bonds iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges. Which type of bond/bonds form and hold the Tertiary Structure of a protein in place?

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which type of bond/bonds form and hold the Tertiary Structure of a protein in place?

10 / 20

What type of reaction could break apart the bonded amino acids?

11 / 20

What is the name of this molecule?

12 / 20

Which best represents the hydrophobic area on this diagram?

13 / 20

Which of the following terms best describes the phosphate part of a phospholipid?

14 / 20

Which of these two molecules is a saturated fatty acid?

15 / 20

The 'tail' of a fatty acid can be a variable length molecule. But what type of molecule is the tail?

16 / 20

Which monomer is this polysaccharide made out of?

17 / 20

Starch is insoluble. What is that advantage of being insoluble?

18 / 20

This polysaccharide of glucose is branched. What is the advantage to the organism of branching ?

19 / 20

What is the main structural difference between Amylose and Amylopectin?

20 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

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26

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

2 / 20

Look at the above graph, what is the concentration of sodium chloride inside the potato cells?

3 / 20

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

4 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

5 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

6 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

7 / 20

In a garlic root tip squash, a student observed 124 cells, of which 19 has visible chromosomes. What was the mitotic index for that tissue?

8 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

9 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

What happens in S phase?

11 / 20

The process shown in the diagram is 'Cell ___________' (spell it correctly)

12 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produces a 2D image?

13 / 20

What does SEM stand for?

14 / 20

Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?

15 / 20

Use the scale bar ( assume it measures 2cm) to calculate the actual diameter of virus particle A ( Assume it measures 3.5cm)

16 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

17 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line B (length) in the image measures 3.5 cm, and the actual cell measures 7μm. What is the magnification of this image of the palisade cell?

18 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

19 / 20

True or false: Generally prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

20 / 20

Name this organelle.

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9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a small tube is inserted into the phloem through the bark of a tree, sap containing sucrose leaks out. Where on the tree will the most sap leak from due to the highest hydrostatic pressure?

2 / 20

The Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best explanation for translocation in plants. What does it suggest happens at 'sources'?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'source' ?

4 / 20

What has happened at position C?

5 / 20

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

6 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has a folded endothelium?

7 / 20

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

8 / 20

In which direction ( if any) , would the curve be for human foetal haemoglobin?

9 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

10 / 20

How does water move into the guard cells?

11 / 20

What maintains the concentration gradients for gaseous exchange in the tracheoles?

12 / 20

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

13 / 20

The blood and water flow in opposite directions, what is this called?

14 / 20

What is 'Tidal Volume'?

15 / 20

Emphysema is caused by what?

16 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

17 / 20

What shape is the diaphragm when it is contracted?

18 / 20

Which letter represents the trachea?

19 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are the two agar blocks a similar surface area (within 5% difference)?

20 / 20

Multicellular organisms cannot absorb enough substances by diffusion. Why is this?

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9

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

2 / 20

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

3 / 20

The Western Corn Rootworm has developed resistance to a protein pesticide found in transgenic crops. The protein no longer damages the digestive tract of the insect.

4 / 20

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

5 / 20

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

6 / 20

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

7 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

8 / 20

How does recombination increase variation?

9 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

10 / 20

What word describes cells which contain pairs of chromosomes?

11 / 20

What molecule is formed at the end of translation?

12 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

13 / 20

What stops the RNA polymerase?

14 / 20

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

15 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

17 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

18 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

19 / 20

What is the genome of a cell?

20 / 20

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

2 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

3 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

4 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

5 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

6 / 20

In hamsters two genes are autosomally linked : Fur and Eye colour . Where Ginger fur = G, and White fur =g. Black eyes = B and red eyes = b. In a cross between a homozygous recessive male for both traits and a heterozygous female for both traits , what would be the expected ratio of Ginger & Black eye, White and Black eye, ginger and red eye and white with red eyes?

7 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

8 / 20

What does the term 'Codominance' mean?

9 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

10 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

11 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle A

12 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

13 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

14 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

15 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

16 / 20

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

17 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

18 / 20

What is represented by molecule C?

19 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

20 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

3 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which type of organism carry out process A?

4 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

5 / 20

What is the formula for NPP?

6 / 20

The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

7 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

8 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

9 / 20

What should go in box 'X'?

10 / 20

What is passed along the 4 protein complexes - represented by 'W' on the diagram?

11 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

12 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

13 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

14 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

15 / 20

Explain the results in tube 3.

16 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

17 / 20

Name substance C

18 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

19 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

20 / 20

Name structure E

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

2 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

4 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

5 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

6 / 20

Can the potential difference created by a receptor have different values depending on the size of the stimulus?

7 / 20

GABA is a neurotransmitter released in some inhibitory synapses in the brain. GABA causes negatively charged chloride ions to enter postsynaptic neurones. Explain how this inhibits postsynaptic neurones

8 / 20

Using the diagram, name E

9 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

10 / 20

True or False: If too few sodium channels are opened by a stimulus on an neurone membrane, then no action potential is generated.

11 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

12 / 20

Name protein A in the above diagram.

13 / 20

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

14 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

15 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

16 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

17 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

18 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

19 / 20

Which of the following is true?

20 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the native climax community in the UK?

2 / 20

What is it called when succession is stopped artificially?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

4 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

5 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

6 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

7 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

8 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

9 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

10 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

11 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

12 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

13 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

14 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

15 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

16 / 20

If two genes are on the same chromosome, how do we say they are linked?

17 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

18 / 20

How could you tell if Marfan Syndrome is Dominant by looking at a pedigree ( family tree)?

19 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born short haired and white?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

2 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 20

What causes epigenetic markers to be added or removed from DNA?

4 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

5 / 20

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

6 / 20

Which molecule does the SIRNA / protein complex (RISC) bind to?

7 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

8 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

9 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

10 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

11 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

12 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

13 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

14 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

15 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

16 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

17 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

18 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

19 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

20 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

9

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

2 / 20

Which of the following has contributed to the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

3 / 20

A mutation in a population of bed bugs in New York City caused the bedbugs to have a thicker, waxier exoskeleton. Why will the allele for thicker , waxier exoskeleton in bed bugs increase in the population?

4 / 20

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

5 / 20

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

6 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

7 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACCTTGG

8 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

9 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

10 / 20

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

11 / 20

Before meiosis starts, the primary spermatocyte or oocyte replicates its chromosomes and organelles. What is this phase called?

12 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

13 / 20

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

14 / 20

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

15 / 20

What do H and h represent?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

17 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

18 / 20

What is the proteome of a cell?

19 / 20

Eukaryotic DNA is stored, wrapped around which type of protein?

20 / 20

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are an homologous pair?

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

3 / 20

How does an increase in wind speed, increase the rate of transpiration?

4 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

5 / 20

What has happened at position B?

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

7 / 20

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm3 min-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

8 / 20

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

9 / 20

Does this bar cart show a correlation between number of cigarettes smoked, and the risk of CVD?

10 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

11 / 20

In which direction ( if any) , would the curve be for human foetal haemoglobin?

12 / 20

How does water move into the guard cells?

13 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

14 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If someone take 60 breaths over 5 minutes, and takes in 230 cm3, what is their PVR?

15 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained between the alveolar space and the blood?

16 / 20

Which is an example of a behavioural adaptation which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

17 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

18 / 20

Some animals are adapted to higher temperatures in their environment. Which of the following is an example of this ?

19 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

20 / 20

Why can single celled organisms exchange many substances by simple diffusion over the plasma membrane?

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Cells Random Retrieval

26

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

On the above diagram, where would an antigen bind?

2 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

3 / 20

Which type of cell can engulf a pathogen?

4 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

5 / 20

What is the water potential of pure water?

6 / 20

Is a higher water potential...

7 / 20

Which type of membrane protein is not involved in facilitated diffusion?

8 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

9 / 20

Name molecule I.

10 / 20

Name structure E.

11 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

The process shown in the diagram is 'Cell ___________' (spell it correctly)

13 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

14 / 20

What does SEM stand for?

15 / 20

Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?

16 / 20

What term describes the ability to see two separate points, as two separate points. Rather than one large point on an image ? (You need to spell it correctly!)

17 / 20

True or False : plasmids are passed on by binary fission only.

18 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

19 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is B?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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