Control of Expression Random Retrieval

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

3 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

4 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

5 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

6 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

7 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

8 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

9 / 20

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

10 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

11 / 20

What are iPS cells?

12 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

13 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

14 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

15 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

16 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

17 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

18 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

19 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

20 / 20

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following does NOT stop succession?

2 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

4 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

5 / 20

A student is using a quadrat to estimate percentage cover of clover on the school field. What is the most accurate way to do this?

6 / 20

What is the equation for Mark Release Recapture?

7 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

8 / 20

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

9 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

10 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

11 / 20

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

12 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

13 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

14 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

15 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

16 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

17 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

18 / 20

19 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

4 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

5 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

6 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

7 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

8 / 20

What reduces the concentration of neurotransmitter in a synapse after it has diffused across?

9 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

11 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

12 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

13 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

14 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

15 / 20

Name protein B in the above diagram.

16 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

17 / 20

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

18 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

19 / 20

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

20 / 20

In root tips growing parallel to the soil, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found ?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

2 / 20

The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

3 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

4 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'X'.

5 / 20

In which stage of respiration is oxygen required?

6 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

7 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

8 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

9 / 20

Name molecule 'Z'

10 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

11 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

13 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

14 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

15 / 20

Where does glycolysis occur?

16 / 20

Name the technique detailed in the above diagram ( spell it correctly!)

17 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

18 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in substance A?

19 / 20

Name substance A

20 / 20

Where does the energy needed for the splitting of water originate?

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

2 / 20

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

3 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

4 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

5 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

6 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

7 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

8 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

9 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

10 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

11 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

12 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

13 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

14 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

15 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

16 / 20

Name molecule Z

17 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

18 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

19 / 20

What is structure D?

20 / 20

What type of molecule will pick up the 'high energy' electrons in PSII?

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

3 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

4 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

5 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

6 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

7 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

8 / 20

Which type of selection is human birthweight showing? (As low birth - weight babies and high birth - weight babies are less likely to survive)

9 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

10 / 20

Put the following statements in order to explain what happens at an excitatory synapse:

  • a) Voltage gated calcium channels open.
  • b) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
  • c) If threshold is reached, an action potential is generated
  • d) Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic neurone.
  • e) Arrival of an action potential
  • f) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors with associated sodium channels
  • g) Neurotransmitters diffuse across the cleft
  • h) Sodium ions diffuse into post synaptic membrane

11 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

12 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

13 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

14 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

15 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

16 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

17 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

18 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

19 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

20 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Nitrates and Phosphates are mostly soluble, so they can easily run off into waterways. What is this process called?

2 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

3 / 20

What are the strands of fungi called?

4 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

5 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

6 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

7 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

8 / 20

What is the formula for NPP?

9 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

10 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Y'.

11 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

12 / 20

In which stage of respiration is oxygen required?

13 / 20

As the ETC flows, what will happen to the pH of A?

14 / 20

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

15 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of Oxaloacetate?

16 / 20

Which two processes turn Citrate into the 5C intermediate?

17 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

18 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

19 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

20 / 20

Name the enzyme that converts A to B.

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

2 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

3 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

4 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

5 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

6 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

7 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

8 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

9 / 20

What is the stimulus detected by a Pacinian corpuscle? (type your answer)

10 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

11 / 20

What reduces the concentration of neurotransmitter in a synapse after it has diffused across?

12 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

13 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

14 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

15 / 20

Name protein C in the above diagram.

16 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

17 / 20

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

18 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

19 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

20 / 20

Maggots follow a scent up a concentration gradient towards a food source. Is this taxis or kinesis?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

2 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

3 / 20

What is the equation for Mark Release Recapture?

4 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

5 / 20

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

6 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

7 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

8 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by a physical barrier between two populations such as a body of water?

9 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

10 / 20

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

11 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

12 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

13 / 20

14 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

15 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

16 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

17 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

18 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

19 / 20

How could you tell if Marfan Syndrome is Dominant by looking at a pedigree ( family tree)?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

2 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

3 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

4 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

5 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

6 / 20

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

7 / 20

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

8 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

9 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

10 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

11 / 20

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

12 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

13 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

14 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

15 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

16 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

17 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

18 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

19 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

20 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

78

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

2 / 20

How does recombination increase variation?

3 / 20

What do H and h represent?

4 / 20

What is translocation the movement of?

5 / 20

What has happened at position A?

6 / 20

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm3 min-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

7 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

8 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have hairs over the stomatal pits?

9 / 20

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

10 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

11 / 20

To calculate the 'Mitotic Index' you need to stain your root tip cells. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate stain to view Chromosomes with?

12 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

13 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

14 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

15 / 20

Water has a high specific heat capacity, why is this useful to organisms?

16 / 20

The average human makes and breaks-down its own body mass in ATP every day ( approximately 70 kg). Why is this?

17 / 20

Which line shows the rate when substrate is limited ?

18 / 20

What do we mean by the 'Primary Structure' of a protein?

19 / 20

What is wrong with amino acid C?

20 / 20

What are the products of a condensation reaction between two alpha glucose molecules?

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40

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

An ion with a negative charge is called an anion. Which of the following is NOT an anion?

2 / 20

The average human makes and breaks-down its own body mass in ATP every day ( approximately 70 kg). Why is this?

3 / 20

What type of molecule is part C ?

4 / 20

What does ATP stand for?

5 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

 

6 / 20

True or False : Endothermic enzyme controlled reactions do not require activation energy?

7 / 20

Enzymes are biological catalysts: they speed up reactions. This allows the reactions to happen at...

 

8 / 20

What colour shows a positive result?

9 / 20

What is the next reagent to be added after this initial treatment?

10 / 20

Glycine and Alanine are two common amino acids. How are their structures different to each other?

11 / 20

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

12 / 20

What elements are lipids made out of?

13 / 20

What type of glycosidic bond form the main body for the branches?

 

14 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

15 / 20

Which monomer is the animal storage polysaccharide made out of ?

16 / 20

Which polysaccharide do animal cells use as storage?

17 / 20

It forms strong, straight fibres called what ?

 

18 / 20

What type of bond forms amylose?

19 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

20 / 20

Does this diagram show a glycosidic bond?

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27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

On the above diagram, where would an antigen bind?

2 / 20

Which type of cell activates other immune cells in an immune response?

3 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

4 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

5 / 20

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

6 / 20

Other than glucose, which substance can be absorbed from the ileum via co-transport?

7 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

8 / 20

Which molecules are found in A?

9 / 20

Name structure G.

10 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

11 / 20

As well as being cold, what must the solution also be?

12 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

13 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

14 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

15 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

16 / 20

Why might structure 'A' be useful in gut bacteria ?

17 / 20

True or false : Prokaryotic DNA coils around histones.

18 / 20

Name this organelle

19 / 20

Name this organelle.

20 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

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10

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

2 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

3 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

4 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

5 / 20

Name the structures labelled A

6 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

7 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

8 / 20

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

9 / 20

How many oxygen molecules can each haem group carry?

10 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have their stomata in pits?

11 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

12 / 20

Which number represents the layer where gaseous exchange happens in plants?

13 / 20

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

14 / 20

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria infecting the lungs, where amongst other effects it reduces tidal volume. What happens to the ventilation rate of sufferers?

15 / 20

Why would someone with Pulmonary Fibrosis have a reduced rate of oxygen diffusion?

16 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

17 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

18 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

19 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

20 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

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10

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

2 / 20

Which of the following has contributed to the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

4 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

5 / 20

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

6 / 20

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

7 / 20

The Amish in America are a closed community, which only reproduce with-in their own population. They are descended from 200 Swiss who migrated there. They have a much higher proportion of alleles which cause genetic disorders, rarely seen in the rest of the population. What is this an example of?

8 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

9 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

10 / 20

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

11 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

12 / 20

What is translation?

13 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

14 / 20

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

15 / 20

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

16 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

17 / 20

What is transcription?

18 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

19 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

2 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

3 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

4 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

5 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

6 / 20

What is the removal of introns called?

7 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

8 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

9 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

10 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

11 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

12 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

13 / 20

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

14 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

15 / 20

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

16 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

17 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

18 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

19 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

20 / 20

What molecule is represented by 'B' on the diagram?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

2 / 20

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

3 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

4 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

5 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

6 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

7 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

8 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Ethanol

9 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

10 / 20

What is passed along the 4 protein complexes - represented by 'W' on the diagram?

11 / 20

How many molecules of Y will be produced by the krebs cycle from a single molecule of glucose?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule X after it has been generated?

13 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

14 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

15 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

16 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

17 / 20

If six molecules of molecule C are produced, how many will be regenerated into substance A?

18 / 20

Name substance C

19 / 20

Name substance A

20 / 20

What molecule is represented by 'B' on the diagram?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

3 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

4 / 20

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter which has a role in numerous processes in the brain including pain relief. The release of dopamine can be stimulated by chemicals called endorphins produced in the brain. Endorphins attach to opioid receptors on presynaptic neurones that release dopamine. Morphine is a drug that has a similar structure to endorphins and can provide pain relief, explain how.

5 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

6 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

7 / 20

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

8 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

9 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

10 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

11 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

12 / 20

Name stage 5 on the above diagram ( spell it carefully!)

13 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

14 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, what is the Independent variable?

16 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

18 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is humus?

2 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

3 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

4 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

5 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

6 / 20

Using mark release recapture, what would the population of woodlice be if : 27 were caught in the first sample , and 16 unmarked caught in the second, and 3 were marked?

7 / 20

How many samples should you take to get reliable data?

8 / 20

Population growth can be exponential . How would we turn a curved population curve into a straight line graph?

9 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

10 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

11 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

12 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

13 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

14 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

15 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

16 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

17 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

18 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

19 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

20 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

3 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

4 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

5 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

6 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

7 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

8 / 20

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

9 / 20

What is the removal of introns called?

10 / 20

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

11 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

12 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

13 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

14 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

15 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

17 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

18 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

19 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

20 / 20

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

10

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

2 / 20

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

3 / 20

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

4 / 20

How do new alleles occur in a population?

5 / 20

Which is an example of a Genetic Bottleneck?

6 / 20

Which of the following will reduce genetic diversity in a population?

7 / 20

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

8 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

9 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

10 / 20

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

11 / 20

What word do we use to describe the pairs of chromosomes?

12 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

13 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

14 / 20

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

15 / 20

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

16 / 20

What molecule is made in eukaryotic transcription?

17 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

18 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

19 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

20 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

10

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best explanation for translocation in plants. What does it suggest happens at 'sources'?

2 / 20

In terms of translocation, what is an 'assimilate'?

3 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

4 / 20

What is transpiration the movement of?

5 / 20

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

6 / 20

What has happened at position B?

7 / 20

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

8 / 20

When will the valves close?

9 / 20

Is there a significant difference between risk of CVD smoking -19 cigarettes a day and more than 20 cigarettes a day?

10 / 20

Does this bar cart show a correlation between number of cigarettes smoked, and the risk of CVD?

11 / 20

What is it called, when Carbon Dioxide causes the dissociation curve to shift?

12 / 20

On the graph, which letter shows where it is hardest for oxygen to associate?

13 / 20

Which letter is the tracheae?

14 / 20

The blood and water flow in opposite directions, what is this called?

15 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained between the alveolar space and the blood?

16 / 20

Which muscles contract when you exhale at rest?

17 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

18 / 20

Some animals are adapted to higher temperatures in their environment. Which of the following is an example of this ?

19 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a spongy mesophyll cell with the surface area of 24,000 µm 2, and a volume of 110,000µm 3?

20 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

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Cells Random Retrieval

27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

2 / 20

A worm native to fresh water will die when placed in sea water. Why is this?

3 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

4 / 20

Name structure G.

5 / 20

What substance will structure C be made out of?

6 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

7 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

8 / 20

Why must the solution used to homogenise be cold?

9 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

10 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produces a 2D image?

11 / 20

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

12 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

13 / 20

True or False : plasmids are passed on by binary fission only.

14 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

15 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

16 / 20

Name this organelle

17 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

18 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

19 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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