Control of Expression Random Retrieval

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

3 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

4 / 20

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

5 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

6 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

7 / 20

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

8 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

9 / 20

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

10 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

11 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

12 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

13 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

14 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

15 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

16 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

17 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

18 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

19 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

20 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the native climax community in the UK?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

4 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

5 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

6 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

7 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

8 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

9 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

10 / 20

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

11 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

12 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

13 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

14 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

15 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

16 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

17 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

18 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

19 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'genotype'?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

2 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

3 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

4 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

5 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

6 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

7 / 20

The diagram above shows a cross section of a human eye. Name layer A (Type your answer).

8 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

9 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

10 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

11 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

12 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

13 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

14 / 20

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

15 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

16 / 20

How can charged ions cross a plasma membrane?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

17 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

18 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

19 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

20 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Some fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. What are these fungi/root structures called?

2 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

3 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which two processes form nitrification?

4 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

5 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

6 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

7 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

8 / 20

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

9 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

10 / 20

Which of the following substances is NOT a co-enzyme?

11 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

12 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of Oxaloacetate?

13 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of molecule B?

14 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

15 / 20

What is represented by molecule C?

16 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

17 / 20

Explain the results in tube 3.

18 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

19 / 20

Which substance goes on to create other organic molecules?

20 / 20

Where in a chloroplast do the Light Independent Reactions ( LIRs) occur? ( watch your spelling!)

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

2 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

3 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

4 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

5 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

6 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

7 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

8 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

9 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

10 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

11 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

12 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

13 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

14 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

15 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

16 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

17 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

18 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

19 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

20 / 20

Name substance D

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

2 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

3 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

4 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

5 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle A

6 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

7 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

8 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

9 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

10 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

11 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

12 / 20

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

13 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

14 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

15 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

16 / 20

How many times does the Krebs cycle happen per glucose molecule?

17 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

18 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

19 / 20

Name substance A

20 / 20

Where in a chloroplast do the Light Independent Reactions ( LIRs) occur? ( watch your spelling!)

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is 'Guano'?

2 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

3 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

4 / 20

What does GPP represent in a given area?

5 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

6 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

7 / 20

Is the column for the link reaction in the above diagram correct?

8 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

9 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

10 / 20

What is passed along the 4 protein complexes - represented by 'W' on the diagram?

11 / 20

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

12 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

13 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of molecule B?

14 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

15 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

16 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

17 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

18 / 20

How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

19 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

20 / 20

Name structure E

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

2 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

3 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

4 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

5 / 20

In order for an action potential to be generated in a Pacinian corpuscle, what must happen?

6 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

7 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

8 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

9 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

10 / 20

True or False: Synapses can only transmit an impulse in one direction?

11 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

12 / 20

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

13 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

14 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

15 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

16 / 20

Name stage 5 on the above diagram ( spell it carefully!)

17 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

18 / 20

Name protein B in the above diagram.

19 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

20 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

2 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

3 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

4 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

5 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

6 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

7 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

8 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

9 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

10 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

11 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

12 / 20

What is the formula for the Hardy Weinberg equation?

13 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has ____.

14 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

15 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

16 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

17 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

18 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

19 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

2 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

4 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

5 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

6 / 20

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

7 / 20

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

8 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

9 / 20

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

10 / 20

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

11 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

12 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

13 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

14 / 20

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

15 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred?

17 / 20

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

18 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

19 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

20 / 20

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

75

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

During Metaphase 1, the homologous pairs can line up with either the paternal chromosome above, or the maternal chromosome above. What is this phenomenon called?

2 / 20

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

3 / 20

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

4 / 20

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

5 / 20

Which direction will the bubble move?

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

7 / 20

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

8 / 20

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

9 / 20

What is the volume of the same palisde cell measuring 100 µm by 40 µm?

10 / 20

True or False - Each B cell has an antibody with a different shaped variable region on its membrane.

11 / 20

Other than glucose, which substance can be absorbed from the ileum via co-transport?

12 / 20

Which protein needs to be used first in the co-transport of glucose across a membrane. For example in the ileum.

13 / 20

Name structure G.

14 / 20

True or false: Generally prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

15 / 20

Name this organelle

16 / 20

What type of reaction is involved in the breakdown of ATP?

17 / 20

The diagram shows a template strand of DNA. Which of the following is the order the first 5 new bases will be added (first in the sequence, would be first to be added)?

18 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled A

19 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the activation energy with an enzyme?

20 / 20

Which of the following is not true about triglycerides?

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39

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which equation represents the action of ATP Synthase?

2 / 20

What type of molecule is part C ?

3 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Conservative method, what would the DNA bands look like after one generation in N14 medium(Tube A)?

4 / 20

What type of bonds are broken between the DNA bases when replication starts?

5 / 20

Which enzyme breaks the bonds between complementary base pairs in preparation for DNA replication?

6 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

7 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were G?

8 / 20

Viagra is a similar shape to cyclic GMP ( cGMP). Both will block an enzyme called PDE5. cGMP causes vasodilation. What sort of inhibitor is Viagra?

9 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

10 / 20

Explain how non-competitive inhibitors reduce rate.

11 / 20

Looking at the shape of the substrate, which molecule could it be?

12 / 20

What colour shows a positive result?

13 / 20

What is the next reagent to be added after this initial treatment?

14 / 20

The structure of a protein relates to its function. What is the best description of a channel protein from the following?

15 / 20

Antibodies are made out of 4 polypeptide chains, with no prosthetic group. How many levels of protein structure will they have?

16 / 20

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains:

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which bonds form the secondary structure?

17 / 20

Which monomer is starch made out of?

18 / 20

Which molecule is NOT glucose ?

19 / 20

Which molecule is Beta - Glucose?

20 / 20

What type of sugar is fructose?

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26

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

2 / 20

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

3 / 20

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

4 / 20

What type of transport is osmosis?

5 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will increase the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

 

6 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. which tube would you predict shows beetroot incubated at 20 0C?

7 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

8 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

9 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

11 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

12 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

13 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

14 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

15 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can only be used on non-living samples?

16 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

17 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

18 / 20

Name structure A

19 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

2 / 20

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

3 / 20

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

4 / 20

Which direction will the bubble move?

5 / 20

Which of the following would decrease the rate of transpiration?

6 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

7 / 20

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

8 / 20

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm3 , and a HR of 52 bpm?

9 / 20

What happens to the heart during Diastole?

10 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

11 / 20

This bar chart shows the risk of CVD with differing amounts of cigarettes smoked per day. Is there a significant difference in risk between smoking no cigarettes, and smoking 1 - 19 cigarettes a day?

12 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

13 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

14 / 20

What unit do we use to measure the concentration of oxygen in the tissue?

15 / 20

How does water move into the guard cells?

16 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

17 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If the breathing rate is 7, and the PVR is 1.4 dm3 min -1, what is the tidal volume?

18 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained between the alveolar space and the blood?

19 / 20

Which two letters would be held open by C shaped cartilage rings?

20 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

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9

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following has contributed to the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

2 / 20

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

3 / 20

The Western Corn Rootworm has developed resistance to a protein pesticide found in transgenic crops. The protein no longer damages the digestive tract of the insect.

4 / 20

How do new alleles occur in a population?

5 / 20

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

6 / 20

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

7 / 20

A sheep cheek cell which is not dividing has 54 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present during Meiotic Prophase 1 in the testes?

8 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

9 / 20

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

10 / 20

There are now two identical copies of each chromosome, held together by the centromere. Which term best describes these identical copies?

11 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

12 / 20

How many tRNA molecules can fit into a ribosome at any time?

13 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

14 / 20

What is the base-pairing pattern in DNA to RNA?

15 / 20

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

16 / 20

Which is the true statement about DNA compared to RNA?

17 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

18 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

19 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

2 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

3 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

4 / 20

What is the formula for the Hardy Weinberg equation?

5 / 20

6 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

7 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

8 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

9 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

10 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

11 / 20

In root tips growing parallel to the soil, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found ?

12 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

13 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

14 / 20

External digestion involves the secretion of enzymes outside of the organisms outer-most layer. Which term best describes this?

15 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

16 / 20

What is represented by molecule C?

17 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

18 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

19 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

20 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

2 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

3 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

4 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

5 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

6 / 20

As the ETC flows, what will happen to the pH of A?

7 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

8 / 20

Which two processes turn Citrate into the 5C intermediate?

9 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

10 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Y at the end of glycolysis?

11 / 20

Glycolysis usually shows the breakdown of glucose, but is glucose the only respiratory substrate which can feed into glycolysis?

12 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

13 / 20

How do you calculate the Rf value for a substance?

14 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

15 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

16 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

17 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are required to generate TWO molecules of glucose ?

18 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

19 / 20

Name substance A

20 / 20

What is structure D?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

2 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

3 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

4 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

5 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

6 / 20

GABA is a neurotransmitter released in some inhibitory synapses in the brain. GABA causes negatively charged chloride ions to enter postsynaptic neurones. Explain how this inhibits postsynaptic neurones

7 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

8 / 20

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

9 / 20

True or False - The speed of conduction along an unmyelinated neurone is around 5 m/s ( jogging pace).

10 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

11 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

12 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

13 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

14 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

16 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

17 / 20

Honey bees can detect the polarised light from the sun and use it to navigate even in cloudy weather. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following does NOT stop succession?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

A student is using a quadrat to estimate percentage cover of clover on the school field. What is the most accurate way to do this?

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

5 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

6 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

7 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

8 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

9 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

10 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

11 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

12 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

13 / 20

In hamsters two genes are autosomally linked : Fur and Eye colour . Where Ginger fur = G, and White fur =g. Black eyes = B and red eyes = b. In a cross between a homozygous recessive male for both traits and a heterozygous female for both traits , what would be the expected ratio of Ginger & Black eye, White and Black eye, ginger and red eye and white with red eyes?

14 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

15 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

16 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

17 / 20

What does the term 'Codominance' mean?

18 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

19 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

2 / 20

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

3 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

4 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

5 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

6 / 20

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

7 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

8 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

9 / 20

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

10 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

11 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

12 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

14 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

15 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

16 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

17 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

18 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

19 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

9

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false : The most effective antibiotic for E Coli O121 will also be the most effective antibiotic for EColi K1.

2 / 20

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

3 / 20

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

4 / 20

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

5 / 20

Why do the modern day population of Tristan De Cunha has a much higher than average incidence of the genetic disorder Retinitis Pigmentosa?

6 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

7 / 20

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

8 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

9 / 20

How many chromatids are present in a human cell at the start of meiosis?

10 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

11 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

12 / 20

How many tRNA molecules can fit into a ribosome at any time?

13 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

14 / 20

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

15 / 20

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

17 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

18 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

19 / 20

What is a gene?

20 / 20

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are an homologous pair?

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which direction will the bubble move?

2 / 20

What is transpiration the movement of?

3 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - No end plates on these cells

4 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

5 / 20

What has happened at position B?

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

7 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

8 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

9 / 20

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

10 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the kidneys?

11 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

12 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

13 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have their stomata in pits?

14 / 20

Which term describes that guard cells when the plant has plenty of water available?

15 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained inside the leaf?

16 / 20

What is the function of the lamellae?

17 / 20

The Great White Shark and Black-tipped Reef Shark are two species which must keep swimming to stay alive. Why is this?

18 / 20

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

19 / 20

Why might the FEV be lower for person B?

20 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If the breathing rate is 7, and the PVR is 1.4 dm3 min -1, what is the tidal volume?

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Cells Random Retrieval

26

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

2 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

3 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

4 / 20

Which part of the phospholipid bilayer prevents sodium ions leaving via simple diffusion?

5 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

6 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

7 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

8 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

9 / 20

To look at a sample under a microscope, you need to prepare a temporary mount. Why does the specimen have to be thin?

10 / 20

Which type of electron microscope show the density of the specimen as a dark patch?

11 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produces a 2D image?

12 / 20

What term describes the ability to see two separate points, as two separate points. Rather than one large point on an image ? (You need to spell it correctly!)

13 / 20

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

14 / 20

Bacterial cell division creates.

15 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

16 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

17 / 20

Name structure A

18 / 20

Name structure A

19 / 20

Name this organelle

20 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

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