Control of Expression Random Retrieval

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

2 / 20

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

3 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

4 / 20

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

5 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

6 / 20

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

7 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

8 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

9 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

10 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

11 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

12 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

13 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

14 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

15 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

16 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

17 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

18 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

19 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

20 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

2 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

3 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

4 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

5 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

6 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

7 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

8 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around a middle or mid value, and outliers decrease?

11 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

12 / 20

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

13 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

14 / 20

What does 'p' represent ?

15 / 20

16 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

18 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

19 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

2 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

4 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

5 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

6 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

7 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

8 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

9 / 20

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

10 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

11 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

12 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

13 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

14 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

15 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

16 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

17 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What are the strands of fungi called?

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

3 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

4 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

5 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

6 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

7 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

8 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

9 / 20

How many molecules of Y will be produced by the krebs cycle from a single molecule of glucose?

10 / 20

How many times does the Krebs cycle happen per glucose molecule?

11 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

12 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

13 / 20

How do you calculate the Rf value for a substance?

14 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

15 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

16 / 20

If six molecules of molecule C are produced, how many will be regenerated into substance A?

17 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

18 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

19 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

20 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

2 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

3 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

4 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

5 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

6 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

7 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

8 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

9 / 20

What is a gene?

10 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

11 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle A

12 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

13 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

14 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

15 / 20

What is the formula for NPP?

16 / 20

What should go in box 'X'?

17 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

18 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

19 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

20 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

3 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

5 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

6 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

7 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

8 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

9 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

10 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

11 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

12 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

13 / 20

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

14 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

15 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

16 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

17 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Ethanol

18 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

19 / 20

Which wavelength of light would the rate of photosynthesis be lowest in the above experiment?

20 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

2 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

3 / 20

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

4 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

5 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

6 / 20

Which term describes an organism which feeds on dead organic matter and digests their food externally? (watch your spelling)

7 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

8 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

9 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

10 / 20

Name molecule 'Z'

11 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

12 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

13 / 20

Name molecule Y

14 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

16 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

17 / 20

Name substance C

18 / 20

Name substance A

19 / 20

The splitting of water at PSII creates molecules A & B, what do A and B represent?

20 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

2 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

3 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

4 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

5 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

6 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

7 / 20

Put the following statements in order to explain what happens at an excitatory synapse:

  • a) Voltage gated calcium channels open.
  • b) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
  • c) If threshold is reached, an action potential is generated
  • d) Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic neurone.
  • e) Arrival of an action potential
  • f) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors with associated sodium channels
  • g) Neurotransmitters diffuse across the cleft
  • h) Sodium ions diffuse into post synaptic membrane

8 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

9 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

10 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

11 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

12 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

13 / 20

After a stimulation has occurred, why do ions move out of an axon?

14 / 20

Name protein C in the above diagram.

15 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

16 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, what is the Independent variable?

17 / 20

Maggots follow a scent up a concentration gradient towards a food source. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

19 / 20

Which of the following is true?

20 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

2 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

3 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

5 / 20

How many samples should you take to get reliable data?

6 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

7 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

8 / 20

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

9 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

11 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

12 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

13 / 20

Drosophila fruit flies can have either vestigial wings (w)or wild-type wings (W). If 20% of the population have vestigial wings, what proportion of the population are homozygous dominant?

14 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

15 / 20

What is the formula for the Hardy Weinberg equation?

16 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

17 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

18 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

19 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

3 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

4 / 20

What is 'Epigenetics'?

5 / 20

Which molecule does the SIRNA / protein complex (RISC) bind to?

6 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

7 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

8 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

9 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

10 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

11 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

12 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

13 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

14 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

15 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

16 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

17 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

18 / 20

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

19 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

20 / 20

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

79

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

2 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

3 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

4 / 20

How do you calculate the rate of water transpired by the plant?

5 / 20

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

6 / 20

Which term describes that guard cells when the plant has plenty of water available?

7 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

8 / 20

During co-transport of glucose in the ileum, active transport is needed to establish a concentration gradient of which substance?

9 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

10 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

11 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

12 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

13 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Conservative method, what would the DNA bands look like after one generation in N14 medium(Tube A)?

14 / 20

In this experiment bacteria were grown in a growth medium containing N15. What isN15?

15 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

16 / 20

Where do non-competitive inhibitors bind?

17 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

18 / 20

In this reaction, what percentage difference in energy needed for an enzyme catalysed reaction, compared to an uncatalysed one?

19 / 20

What is the standard structure of a phospholipid?

20 / 20

What would the products be from the hydrolysis of sucrose?

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40

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Hydrogen ionconcentration is used to calculate pH. Which of the following statements is true?

2 / 20

Which of the following molecules contain a phosphate group?

3 / 20

Which process requires the use of ATP?

4 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were C?

5 / 20

Where do non-competitive inhibitors bind?

6 / 20

Why does the graph plateau?

7 / 20

Which points on the above graph show when the enzyme is denatured?

8 / 20

What has happened to the enzyme when it becomes denatured with a high temperature?

9 / 20

Which letter on the above graph shows when the most enzyme-substrate complexes will be formed?

10 / 20

What is the name of the bond that forms between two amino acids?

11 / 20

Which of the above three molecules shows a correct bond between glycerol and a fatty acid?

12 / 20

Which of the following is not true about triglycerides?

13 / 20

What is the formula for glycerol?

14 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

15 / 20

It forms strong, straight fibres called what ?

 

16 / 20

What type of bond forms amylose?

17 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

18 / 20

What would the products be from the hydrolysis of sucrose?

19 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

20 / 20

Is one of the monomers beta glucose ?

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27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

NMO is a disease NMO is a disease that leads to damage to nerve cells in the spinal cord. A person with NMO produces anti-AQP4 antibody that attacks only these nerve cells. Explain why the anti-AQP4 antibody only damages these cells

2 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

3 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

4 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

5 / 20

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

6 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

7 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

8 / 20

Why can't glucose diffuse directly through the phospholipids?

9 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

10 / 20

What substance will structure C be made out of?

11 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

12 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

13 / 20

To look at a sample under a microscope, you need to prepare a temporary mount. Why does the specimen have to be thin?

14 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

15 / 20

Which of the following organelles are visible with a light microscope?

a) Nucleus
b) Lysosomes
c) Chloroplasts

16 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

17 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

18 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

19 / 20

What is structure D called?

20 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

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10

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a small tube is inserted into the phloem through the bark of a tree, sap containing sucrose leaks out. Where on the tree will the most sap leak from due to the highest hydrostatic pressure?

2 / 20

Which direction will the bubble move?

3 / 20

Which of the following would decrease the rate of transpiration?

4 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

5 / 20

What has happened at position D?

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

7 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

8 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

9 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for humming bird haemoglobin?

10 / 20

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

11 / 20

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

12 / 20

Oxygen diffuses out of the tracheoles directly into what?

13 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a gill filament?

14 / 20

If someone's PVR is 1.5dm3 min -1, and their tidal volume is 150 cm 3, how many breaths do they take in a minute?

15 / 20

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

16 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

17 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

18 / 20

What shape is the diaphragm when it is contracted?

19 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at colder temperatures?

20 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Which one will decolourise quickest when placed in an acidic solution ?

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10

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

2 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

3 / 20

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

4 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

5 / 20

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

6 / 20

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

7 / 20

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

8 / 20

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

9 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

10 / 20

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

11 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

12 / 20

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

13 / 20

What is transcription?

14 / 20

What does the 'm' stand for in mRNA?

15 / 20

What word describes the fact there is more than one set of three bases for each amino acid?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

17 / 20

What is an 'homologous chromosome'?

18 / 20

Describe how prokaryotic DNA is stored

19 / 20

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

20 / 20

Eukaryotic DNA is stored, wrapped around which type of protein?

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

2 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

3 / 20

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

4 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

5 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

6 / 20

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

7 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

8 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

9 / 20

What is the definition of 'homozygous'?

10 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

11 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

12 / 20

What the the tiny gaps called labelled X on the above diagram? ( Type your answer)

13 / 20

True or False: If too few sodium channels are opened by a stimulus on an neurone membrane, then no action potential is generated.

14 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

15 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

16 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

17 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

18 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Acetyl Co A produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

19 / 20

Name the above process: The ______ _________

20 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

2 / 20

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

3 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

4 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

5 / 20

What does GPP represent in a given area?

6 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

7 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

8 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

9 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'X'.

10 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Ethanol

11 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

12 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

13 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

14 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

15 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

16 / 20

How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required to balance the number of carbon atoms to produce one glucose molecule?

17 / 20

Which substance goes on to create other organic molecules?

18 / 20

Name substance B

19 / 20

The splitting of water at PSII creates molecules A & B, what do A and B represent?

20 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

4 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

5 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

6 / 20

What is the stimulus detected by a Pacinian corpuscle? (type your answer)

7 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

8 / 20

True or False: Synapses can only transmit an impulse in one direction?

9 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

10 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

11 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

12 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

13 / 20

Stimulation ( either by a generator potential in a receptor cell or a neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane) caused which type of channel to open?

14 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

15 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

16 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

True or false : Taxis is a directional movement

18 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he placed a black cover over the tip show?

19 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

20 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

2 / 20

What is humus?

3 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

4 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

5 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

6 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

7 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

8 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

9 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

10 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

11 / 20

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

12 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

13 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

14 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

15 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

16 / 20

Drosophila fruit flies can have either vestigial wings (w)or wild-type wings (W). If 20% of the population have vestigial wings, what proportion of the population are homozygous dominant?

17 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

18 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

19 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

20 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

2 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

3 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

4 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

5 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

6 / 20

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

7 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

8 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

9 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

10 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

11 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

12 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

13 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

14 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

15 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

16 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

17 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

18 / 20

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

19 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

20 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

10

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

3 / 20

Why do most mutations cause a decrease in reproductive success?

4 / 20

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

5 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

6 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

7 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

8 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

9 / 20

Before meiosis starts, the primary spermatocyte or oocyte replicates its chromosomes and organelles. What is this phase called?

10 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

11 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

12 / 20

What is translation?

13 / 20

What molecule is made in eukaryotic transcription?

14 / 20

Which is the true statement about DNA compared to RNA?

15 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

17 / 20

How many chromosomes do most human cells contain?

18 / 20

What is an allele?

19 / 20

What is a gene?

20 / 20

Describe how prokaryotic DNA is stored

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

10

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

3 / 20

In terms of translocation, what is an 'assimilate'?

4 / 20

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

5 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

6 / 20

What has happened at position B?

7 / 20

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

8 / 20

One of the phases of the cardiac cycle is called Atrial Systole. During Atrial Systole, what is happening in the heart during this phase?

9 / 20

Does this chart show a causal relationship between Risk of CVD and smoking?

10 / 20

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

11 / 20

What unit do we use to measure the concentration of oxygen in the tissue?

12 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have their stomata in pits?

13 / 20

Which letter is the spiracles?

14 / 20

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

15 / 20

True or False - Air moves into the lungs because the internal pressure in the lungs drops below the atmospheric pressure?

16 / 20

Which two letters would be held open by C shaped cartilage rings?

17 / 20

Which is an example of a behavioural adaptation which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

18 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

19 / 20

Multicellular organisms cannot absorb enough substances by diffusion. Why is this?

20 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. You have chosen one which will decolourise the quickest, why did you choose that block?

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Cells Random Retrieval

27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 2 and 3.

2 / 20

NMO is a disease NMO is a disease that leads to damage to nerve cells in the spinal cord. A person with NMO produces anti-AQP4 antibody that attacks only these nerve cells. Explain why the anti-AQP4 antibody only damages these cells

3 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a phagosome?

4 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

5 / 20

Look at the above graph, what is the concentration of sodium chloride inside the potato cells?

6 / 20

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

7 / 20

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

8 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from:

9 / 20

Why can't glucose diffuse directly through the phospholipids?

10 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

11 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

12 / 20

Name molecule I.

13 / 20

Name structure G.

14 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

15 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

16 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

17 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

18 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

19 / 20

True or False : plasmids are passed on by binary fission only.

20 / 20

Name this organelle.

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