Control of Expression Random Retrieval

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

2 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

3 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

4 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

5 / 20

Sometimes when trying to find a gene which important in a particular disease, it is useful to find out what genes the diseased cells have used (expressed) by extracting mRNA rather than DNA. However, mRNA cannot be used in genetic modifications. What do we need to change it into to be able to use it?

6 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

7 / 20

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

8 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

9 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 20

What is the removal of introns called?

11 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

12 / 20

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

13 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

14 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

15 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

16 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

17 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

18 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

19 / 20

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

2 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

3 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

4 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

5 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

6 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

7 / 20

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

8 / 20

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

9 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

10 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

11 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

12 / 20

13 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

14 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

15 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

16 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

18 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

19 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

2 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

3 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

4 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

5 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

6 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

7 / 20

What reduces the concentration of neurotransmitter in a synapse after it has diffused across?

8 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

9 / 20

Using the diagram, name E

10 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

11 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

12 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

13 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

14 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

15 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

16 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

17 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

18 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

3 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

4 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Y'.

5 / 20

In the absence of oxygen as the final electron acceptor, some processes of aerobic respiration cannot occur. Some of the processes however can continue, which is the last stage that can still function?

6 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

7 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

8 / 20

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

9 / 20

How many times does the Krebs cycle happen per glucose molecule?

10 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

11 / 20

Glycolysis usually shows the breakdown of glucose, but is glucose the only respiratory substrate which can feed into glycolysis?

12 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

13 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

14 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

15 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

16 / 20

Name molecule F

17 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in substance A?

18 / 20

Where in a chloroplast do the Light Independent Reactions ( LIRs) occur? ( watch your spelling!)

19 / 20

What is structure D?

20 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

52

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

2 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

3 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

4 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

5 / 20

How many samples should you take to get reliable data?

6 / 20

Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

7 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has ____.

8 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

9 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

10 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

11 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

12 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

13 / 20

How does IAA become unevenly distributed?

14 / 20

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

15 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

16 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

17 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

18 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. Why did the scientists measure the rate of oxygen produced?

19 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

20 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

52

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

2 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

3 / 20

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

4 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

5 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

6 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

7 / 20

What does 'p' represent ?

8 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

9 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

10 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

11 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

12 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

13 / 20

After a stimulation has occurred, why do ions move out of an axon?

14 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

15 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

16 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

17 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

18 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

19 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

20 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

2 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which two processes form nitrification?

3 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

4 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

5 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

6 / 20

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

7 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

8 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

9 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

10 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Oxaloacetate produced by cells exposed to IDH1 ?

11 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of Oxaloacetate?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

13 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

14 / 20

How many phosphate groups are present in hexose bisphosphate?

15 / 20

How do you calculate the Rf value for a substance?

16 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are required to generate TWO molecules of glucose ?

17 / 20

Name substance C

18 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

19 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in substance A?

20 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

2 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

3 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

4 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

5 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

6 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

7 / 20

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

8 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

9 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

10 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

11 / 20

In the above experiment, you hypothesised that a woodlouse responds by kinesis to a change in light intensity. What would be the best way to measure a response which shows kinesis?

12 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, what is the Independent variable?

13 / 20

Honey bees can detect the polarised light from the sun and use it to navigate even in cloudy weather. Is this taxis or kinesis?

14 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

15 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

16 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

17 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

18 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

19 / 20

In root tips growing parallel to the soil, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found ?

20 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

2 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

3 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

4 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

5 / 20

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

6 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

7 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

8 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

10 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

11 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

12 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

13 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

14 / 20

15 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

16 / 20

In hamsters two genes are autosomally linked : Fur and Eye colour . Where Ginger fur = G, and White fur =g. Black eyes = B and red eyes = b. In a cross between a homozygous recessive male for both traits and a heterozygous female for both traits , what would be the expected ratio of Ginger & Black eye, White and Black eye, ginger and red eye and white with red eyes?

17 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

18 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

19 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

3 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

4 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

5 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

6 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

7 / 20

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

8 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

9 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

10 / 20

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

11 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

12 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

13 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

14 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

15 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

16 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

17 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

18 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

19 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

20 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

81

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

2 / 20

During Metaphase 1, the homologous pairs can line up with either the paternal chromosome above, or the maternal chromosome above. What is this phenomenon called?

3 / 20

What do H and h represent?

4 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

5 / 20

How do you calculate the rate of water transpired by the plant?

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

7 / 20

Name the structures labelled A

8 / 20

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

9 / 20

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

10 / 20

True or False - Plasma cells are clones.

11 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

12 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

13 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

14 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

15 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

16 / 20

Why must the solution used to homogenise be cold?

17 / 20

Which of the following are NOT visible with a light microscope?

a) Plant Permanent Vacuole
b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Golgi Body

18 / 20

What type of bond forms between water molecules?

19 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the product?

20 / 20

What does R stand for on an amino acid?

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41

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the name of molecule B?

2 / 20

In this experiment bacteria grown in N15, were then treansfered to N14, and allowed to divide for two generations ( tubeB). Describe what the cenrifuged DNA bands would look like.

3 / 20

Which direction does the enzyme move along the template strand A?

4 / 20

Which enzyme breaks the bonds between complementary base pairs in preparation for DNA replication?

5 / 20

How many bonds form between a 'C' and a 'G' ?

6 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

7 / 20

Which line shows the rate when substrate is limited ?

8 / 20

Why does the graph plateau?

9 / 20

Which letter on the above graph shows when the enzyme is denatured?

10 / 20

A scientist measured the rate of removal of amino acids from a polypeptide with and without an enzyme present. With the enzyme present, 500 amino acids were released per second. Without the enzyme, 2.0 × 10-8 amino acids were released per second. Calculate by how many times the rate of reaction is greater with the enzyme present.

11 / 20

What is the function of the active site?

a) To hold the substrate in such a way as to strain the bonds so they are easier to break. or
b) To hold the substrate in such a way, as to allow new bonds to form.

12 / 20

True or False : Endothermic enzyme controlled reactions do not require activation energy?

13 / 20

What is the name of the COOH group on an amino acid molecule?

14 / 20

Which best represents the hydrophobic area on this diagram?

15 / 20

Which of the above three molecules shows a correct bond between glycerol and a fatty acid?

16 / 20

What type of bond joins a fatty acid to a glycerol molecule?

17 / 20

Which monomer is the animal storage polysaccharide made out of ?

18 / 20

Which monomer is this polysaccharide made out of?

19 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

20 / 20

What type of reaction is used to join two monosaccharides?

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27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Read the above passage. Before reweighing, the potato was blotted dry. Which of the following is NOT a reason for doing this?

2 / 20

A worm native to fresh water will die when placed in sea water. Why is this?

3 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from :

4 / 20

What type of transport is osmosis?

5 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

6 / 20

Why can more pigment leak out across the plasma membrane at a higher temperature (800C) ?

7 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

8 / 20

Name structure G.

9 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

11 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

12 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

13 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

14 / 20

Assume the image of the scale bar in this picture is 2cm long. What is the magnification of this image?

15 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

16 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

17 / 20

Name this organelle.

18 / 20

Name this organelle.

19 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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11

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

2 / 20

How does an increase in wind speed, increase the rate of transpiration?

3 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

4 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

5 / 20

What is Cardiovascular Disease?

 

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

7 / 20

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm3 min-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

8 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

9 / 20

During the Bohr Effect, what happens to the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?

10 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

11 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

12 / 20

Why do the guard cells become 'curved' when they swell up?

13 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

14 / 20

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

15 / 20

What does Pulmonary Ventilation Rate (PVR) mean?

16 / 20

As oxygen diffuses from the alveolar air space into the blood, how many layers of cells does it pass over?

17 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

18 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

19 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are they a similar volume (within 5% difference)?

20 / 20

A Palisade cell is rectangular, and measures 100 µm by 40 µm. What is its surface area?

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11

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The Western Corn Rootworm has developed resistance to a protein pesticide found in transgenic crops. The protein no longer damages the digestive tract of the insect.

2 / 20

A mutation in a population of bed bugs in New York City caused the bedbugs to have a thicker, waxier exoskeleton. Why will the allele for thicker , waxier exoskeleton in bed bugs increase in the population?

3 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

4 / 20

A sheep cheek cell which is not dividing has 54 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present during Meiotic Prophase 1 in the testes?

5 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

6 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

7 / 20

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

8 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

9 / 20

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

10 / 20

What does RNA stand for?

 

11 / 20

What do H and h represent?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

13 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes...

 

14 / 20

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

15 / 20

How many chromosomes do most human cells contain?

16 / 20

What is the genome of a cell?

17 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

18 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

19 / 20

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

20 / 20

Eukaryotic DNA is stored, wrapped around which type of protein?

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Year 13

52

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

2 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

3 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

4 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

5 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

6 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

7 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

8 / 20

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

9 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

10 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

11 / 20

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

12 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

13 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

14 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

15 / 20

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

16 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

17 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

18 / 20

What happens to molecule X after it has been generated?

19 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

20 / 20

Name structure B

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

2 / 20

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

3 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

4 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

5 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Y'.

6 / 20

In the absence of oxygen as the final electron acceptor, some processes of aerobic respiration cannot occur. Some of the processes however can continue, which is the last stage that can still function?

7 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

8 / 20

What is represented by molecule Y?

9 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

10 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

11 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

13 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

14 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

16 / 20

Name the technique detailed in the above diagram ( spell it correctly!)

17 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

18 / 20

What is structure D?

19 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

20 / 20

Name structure E

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

2 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

3 / 20

Can the potential difference created by a receptor have different values depending on the size of the stimulus?

4 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

5 / 20

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter which has a role in numerous processes in the brain including pain relief. The release of dopamine can be stimulated by chemicals called endorphins produced in the brain. Endorphins attach to opioid receptors on presynaptic neurones that release dopamine. Morphine is a drug that has a similar structure to endorphins and can provide pain relief, explain how.

6 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

7 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

8 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

9 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

10 / 20

What the the tiny gaps called labelled X on the above diagram? ( Type your answer)

11 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

12 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

13 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

14 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

15 / 20

How can charged ions cross a plasma membrane?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

16 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

18 / 20

How does IAA become unevenly distributed?

19 / 20

In shoot tips which are lit from the side, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found?

20 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

4 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

5 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

6 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

7 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

8 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

9 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

11 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

12 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

13 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

14 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

15 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

16 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

18 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

19 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

2 / 20

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

3 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

4 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

5 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

6 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

7 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

8 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

9 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

11 / 20

What is the removal of introns called?

12 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

13 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

14 / 20

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

15 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

16 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

17 / 20

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

18 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

19 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

11

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

2 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

3 / 20

The Amish in America are a closed community, which only reproduce with-in their own population. They are descended from 200 Swiss who migrated there. They have a much higher proportion of alleles which cause genetic disorders, rarely seen in the rest of the population. What is this an example of?

4 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

5 / 20

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

6 / 20

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

7 / 20

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

8 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

9 / 20

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

10 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

11 / 20

How is variation introduced during prophase 1?

12 / 20

What word describes cells which contain pairs of chromosomes?

13 / 20

What molecule is formed at the end of translation?

14 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

15 / 20

What do H and h represent?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

17 / 20

How many chromosomes do most human cells contain?

18 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

19 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

20 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

11

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

2 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

3 / 20

Which direction will the bubble move?

4 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

5 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

6 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

7 / 20

Does this chart show a causal relationship between Risk of CVD and smoking?

8 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Vena Cava?

9 / 20

What term describes the haem groups which contain iron?

10 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

11 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have hairs over the stomatal pits?

12 / 20

What maintains the concentration gradients for gaseous exchange in the tracheoles?

13 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

14 / 20

What does Pulmonary Ventilation Rate (PVR) mean?

15 / 20

Which muscles contract when you exhale at rest?

16 / 20

Which two letters would be held open by C shaped cartilage rings?

17 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are they a similar volume (within 5% difference)?

18 / 20

Is it important which way round the numbers go when writing a ratio?

19 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a spongy mesophyll cell with the surface area of 24,000 µm 2, and a volume of 110,000µm 3?

20 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

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Cells Random Retrieval

27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False - Plasma cells are clones.

2 / 20

Digested pathogen proteins can be displayed on the cell surface membrane of a phagocyte. What is this called?

Type your answer.

3 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a phagosome?

4 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

5 / 20

Which term describes a solution with a lower water potential than the cells bathed in it?

6 / 20

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

7 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

8 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

9 / 20

Name structure G.

10 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

11 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

12 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

13 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

14 / 20

Assume the image of the scale bar in this picture is 2cm long. What is the magnification of this image?

15 / 20

Which of these structures is completely absent in eukaryotic cells?

16 / 20

What is structure D called?

17 / 20

What is structure F called?

18 / 20

Name part C

19 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

20 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

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