Control of Expression Random Retrieval

8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

3 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

4 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

5 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

6 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

7 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

8 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

9 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

10 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

11 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

12 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

13 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

14 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

15 / 20

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

16 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

17 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

18 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

19 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

20 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

Your score is

0%

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

A student is using a quadrat to estimate percentage cover of clover on the school field. What is the most accurate way to do this?

2 / 20

Using mark release recapture, what would the population of woodlice be if : 27 were caught in the first sample , and 16 unmarked caught in the second, and 3 were marked?

3 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

4 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by a physical barrier between two populations such as a body of water?

5 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

6 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

7 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

8 / 20

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

9 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

10 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

11 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

12 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

13 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has ____.

14 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

15 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

16 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

17 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

18 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

19 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

20 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

Your score is

0%

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which protein blocks the actin-myosin binding site in a relaxed myofibril?

2 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

4 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

5 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

6 / 20

Can the potential difference created by a receptor have different values depending on the size of the stimulus?

7 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

8 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

9 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

11 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

12 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

13 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

14 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

15 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

16 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

17 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

18 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

19 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

20 / 20

Which of the following is true?

Your score is

0%

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The concentration of nitrates and phosphates in the soil can be increased by the addition of fertiliser, but what ecological damage can this cause?

2 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of inorganic ions from the soil by a plant.

3 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

4 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

5 / 20

In this investigation, are the yeast respiring anaerobically or aerobically ?

6 / 20

In the absence of oxygen as the final electron acceptor, some processes of aerobic respiration cannot occur. Some of the processes however can continue, which is the last stage that can still function?

7 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

8 / 20

In which stage of respiration is oxygen required?

9 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in animal cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Lactic Acid

10 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

11 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

12 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

13 / 20

Name molecule X

14 / 20

Where does glycolysis occur?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

16 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

17 / 20

How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

18 / 20

Name substance A

19 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

20 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

Your score is

0%

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

45

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

3 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

4 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

5 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

6 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

7 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

8 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

9 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

10 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

11 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

12 / 20

Put the following into the correct order:

a) Lower plants die due to lack of photosynthesis.
b)Fish die due to lack of dissolved oxygen.
c) Decomposers respire aerobically to decompose the dead plant matter.
d) Increased algae blocks out the light.
e) Minerals leach into the waterway.
f) Increased minerals cause an algae to grow rapidly.

13 / 20

Many decomposers secrete enzymes to digest organic matter, then absorb the products they require. The digested products which are not required remain in the soil. The digestion of which organic substance will result in the presence of ammonia in the soil?

14 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

15 / 20

What does GPP represent in a given area?

16 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated in aerobic respiration from one glucose molecule entering glycolysis, to the end of the ETC?

 

17 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

18 / 20

How many molecules of Y will be produced by the krebs cycle from a single molecule of glucose?

19 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Y at the end of glycolysis?

20 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

Your score is

0%

Biology Random Retrieval Y13

45

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

2 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

3 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

4 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

5 / 20

What is it called when succession is stopped artificially?

6 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

7 / 20

Population growth can be exponential . How would we turn a curved population curve into a straight line graph?

8 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

9 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

10 / 20

11 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

12 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

13 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which two processes form nitrification?

14 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

15 / 20

What is the formula for NPP?

16 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

17 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

18 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

19 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Y at the end of glycolysis?

20 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

Your score is

0%

5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

2 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

3 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

4 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

5 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

6 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

7 / 20

What does GPP represent in a given area?

8 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

9 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

10 / 20

What is passed along the 4 protein complexes - represented by 'W' on the diagram?

11 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

12 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

13 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

14 / 20

What happens to molecule X after it has been generated?

15 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

16 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

17 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

18 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are required to generate TWO molecules of glucose ?

19 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

20 / 20

Once light has hit structure D, and the electrons have left the chlorophyll, they can either be passed on to form F or follow path 'G'. What is path 'G'?

Your score is

0%

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

4 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

5 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

6 / 20

Put the following statements in order to explain what happens at an excitatory synapse:

  • a) Voltage gated calcium channels open.
  • b) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
  • c) If threshold is reached, an action potential is generated
  • d) Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic neurone.
  • e) Arrival of an action potential
  • f) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors with associated sodium channels
  • g) Neurotransmitters diffuse across the cleft
  • h) Sodium ions diffuse into post synaptic membrane

7 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

8 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

9 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

10 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

11 / 20

Name the process happening at '4' on the above diagram?

12 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

13 / 20

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

14 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

15 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

16 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

Maggots follow a scent up a concentration gradient towards a food source. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

19 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

Your score is

0%

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

2 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

3 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

4 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

5 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

6 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

7 / 20

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

8 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

9 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

10 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

11 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

12 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

13 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

14 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

15 / 20

In hamsters two genes are autosomally linked : Fur and Eye colour . Where Ginger fur = G, and White fur =g. Black eyes = B and red eyes = b. In a cross between a homozygous recessive male for both traits and a heterozygous female for both traits , what would be the expected ratio of Ginger & Black eye, White and Black eye, ginger and red eye and white with red eyes?

16 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

17 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

18 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

19 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

Your score is

0%

8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

3 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

4 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

5 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

6 / 20

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

7 / 20

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

8 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

9 / 20

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

10 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

11 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

12 / 20

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

13 / 20

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

14 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

15 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

16 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

17 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

18 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

19 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

20 / 20

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

Your score is

0%

Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

50

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

2 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

3 / 20

Which of the following IS NOT a way that smoking contributes to the risk of CVD?

4 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

5 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

6 / 20

Is there a significant difference between risk of CVD smoking -19 cigarettes a day and more than 20 cigarettes a day?

7 / 20

What is it called, when Carbon Dioxide causes the dissociation curve to shift?

8 / 20

Which is an example of a behavioural adaptation which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

9 / 20

Read the above passage. Before reweighing, the potato was blotted dry. Which of the following is NOT a reason for doing this?

10 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

11 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

12 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

13 / 20

Bacterial cell division creates.

14 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

15 / 20

What word best describes this molecule?

16 / 20

In this experiment, bacteria were grown for many generations in a medium containing N15. The bacteria were then removed from the N15 , and placed in medium containing .N14.. When The DNA from this first generation was centrifuged ( tube A), what pattern did the DNA bands form?

17 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

18 / 20

The two strands in DNA are 'antiparallel'. What does antiparallel mean?

19 / 20

Glycine and Alanine are two common amino acids. How are their structures different to each other?

20 / 20

Is one of the monomers beta glucose ?

Your score is

0%

34

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules contain a phosphate group?

2 / 20

ATP can be used to add a phosphate group onto molecules. What is this process known as?

3 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were T?

4 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

5 / 20

What base does the 'A' stand for?

6 / 20

Explain how non-competitive inhibitors reduce rate.

7 / 20

Will line A ever plateau if the substrate is unlimited?

8 / 20

Which letter on the above graph is the ' Saturation' point?

9 / 20

In this reaction, what percentage difference in energy needed for an enzyme catalysed reaction, compared to an uncatalysed one?

10 / 20

What is the function of the active site?

a) To hold the substrate in such a way as to strain the bonds so they are easier to break. or
b) To hold the substrate in such a way, as to allow new bonds to form.

11 / 20

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by doing what?

12 / 20

The structure of a protein relates to its function. What is the best description of a channel protein from the following?

13 / 20

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

14 / 20

Which best represents the hydrophobic area on this diagram?

15 / 20

On the above diagram, what does structure '2' represent?

16 / 20

Which of the above three molecules shows a correct bond between glycerol and a fatty acid?

17 / 20

What word best describes the fatty acid 'tails'?

18 / 20

Which polysaccharide do animal cells use as storage?

19 / 20

Starch is insoluble. What is that advantage of being insoluble?

20 / 20

Which molecule is NOT glucose ?

Your score is

0%

20

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

2 / 20

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

3 / 20

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

4 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from :

5 / 20

True or False: Facilitated diffusion can use ATP

6 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

7 / 20

Which of the following molecules can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Lipids

8 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

9 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

10 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

11 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

12 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

13 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

14 / 20

What does SEM stand for?

15 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

16 / 20

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

17 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

18 / 20

True or false: Generally prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

19 / 20

Name structure B

20 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

Your score is

0%

7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

2 / 20

At the sink, solutes are removed from the phloem, what effect does this have on water movement?

3 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

4 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

5 / 20

What is a Thrombosis?

6 / 20

What is Cardiovascular Disease?

 

7 / 20

What has happened at position A?

8 / 20

Name the structures labelled A

9 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has a folded endothelium?

10 / 20

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

11 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

12 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Pulmonary Vein?

13 / 20

Why is it useful that the Bohr Effect reduces the percentage saturation of Haemoglobin with oxygen?

14 / 20

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

15 / 20

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

16 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

17 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

18 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

19 / 20

Multicellular organisms cannot absorb enough substances by diffusion. Why is this?

20 / 20

A Palisade cell is rectangular, and measures 100 µm by 40 µm. What is its surface area?

Your score is

0%

3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

2 / 20

Why do most mutations cause a decrease in reproductive success?

3 / 20

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

4 / 20

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

5 / 20

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

6 / 20

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

7 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

8 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

9 / 20

How does recombination increase variation?

10 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

11 / 20

As there are now 4 chromatids in each homologous pair, they are sometimes called what?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

13 / 20

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

14 / 20

What bond is formed between the free RNA bases, once they have formed complementary base pairs?

15 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

16 / 20

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

17 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

18 / 20

What is the genome of a cell?

19 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

20 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

Your score is

0%

Year 13

45

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What are iPS cells?

2 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

3 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

4 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

5 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

6 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

7 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

8 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

9 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

10 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

11 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

12 / 20

How does IAA become unevenly distributed?

13 / 20

In root tips growing parallel to the soil, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found ?

14 / 20

Which of the following is true?

15 / 20

What is 'Guano'?

16 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

17 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

18 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

19 / 20

How many times does the Krebs cycle happen per glucose molecule?

20 / 20

How many phosphate groups are present in hexose bisphosphate?

Your score is

0%

5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

2 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

3 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

4 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

5 / 20

Which would be the most accurate method of sampling dry biomass?

6 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

7 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

8 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'X'.

9 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

10 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

11 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

12 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Oxaloacetate produced by cells exposed to IDH1 ?

13 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

14 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

15 / 20

Name molecule X

16 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

17 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

18 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

19 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

20 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

Your score is

0%

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

2 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

3 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

4 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

5 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

6 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

7 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

8 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

9 / 20

Put the following statements in order to explain what happens at an excitatory synapse:

  • a) Voltage gated calcium channels open.
  • b) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
  • c) If threshold is reached, an action potential is generated
  • d) Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic neurone.
  • e) Arrival of an action potential
  • f) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors with associated sodium channels
  • g) Neurotransmitters diffuse across the cleft
  • h) Sodium ions diffuse into post synaptic membrane

10 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

11 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

12 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

13 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

14 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

15 / 20

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

16 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

17 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

19 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

20 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

Your score is

0%

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

2 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

4 / 20

A student is using a quadrat to estimate percentage cover of clover on the school field. What is the most accurate way to do this?

5 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

6 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

7 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

8 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

9 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

10 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

11 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

12 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has ____.

13 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

14 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

15 / 20

What is an autosome?

16 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

18 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

19 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

Your score is

0%

8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

3 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

4 / 20

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

5 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

6 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

7 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

8 / 20

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

9 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

10 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

11 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

12 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

13 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

14 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

15 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

17 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

18 / 20

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

19 / 20

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

20 / 20

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

Your score is

0%

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The development of antibiotic resistance is an example of what type of selection?

2 / 20

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

3 / 20

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

4 / 20

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

5 / 20

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

6 / 20

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

7 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

8 / 20

How is variation introduced during prophase 1?

9 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

10 / 20

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

11 / 20

As there are now 4 chromatids in each homologous pair, they are sometimes called what?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

13 / 20

What molecule is formed at the end of translation?

14 / 20

What does RNA stand for?

 

15 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

17 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

18 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

19 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

Your score is

0%

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

2 / 20

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'source' ?

4 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

5 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

6 / 20

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

7 / 20

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

8 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have hairs over the stomatal pits?

9 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained inside the leaf?

10 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

11 / 20

Which number represents the layer where gaseous exchange happens in plants?

12 / 20

Which letter is the spiracles?

13 / 20

What is the function of the lamellae?

14 / 20

Sufferers of emphysema also have reduced elastin in the alveolar walls. What effect does this have on breathing?

15 / 20

What does Pulmonary Ventilation Rate (PVR) mean?

16 / 20

Which term best describes breathing?

17 / 20

Which letter represents the trachea?

18 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at colder temperatures?

19 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

20 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

Your score is

0%

Cells Random Retrieval

20

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

2 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

3 / 20

Is a higher water potential...

4 / 20

What type of transport is osmosis?

5 / 20

During co-transport of glucose in the ileum, active transport is needed to establish a concentration gradient of which substance?

6 / 20

True or False: Facilitated diffusion can use ATP

7 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Why did flask F plateau?

8 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

9 / 20

In this version of required practical 4, 1cm beetroot cores are soaked in different concentrations of ethanol - 0%, 10%, 20%and 30%. Which graph represents the expected results ?

10 / 20

Which molecule makes up part D?

11 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

13 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

14 / 20

How long is one complete cell cycle on this graph?

15 / 20

What happens in G1 phase?

16 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

17 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can only be used on non-living samples?

18 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

19 / 20

True or false: Generally prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

20 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

Your score is

0%