Control of Expression Random Retrieval

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

3 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

4 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

5 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

6 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

7 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

8 / 20

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

9 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

10 / 20

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

11 / 20

What are iPS cells?

12 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

13 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

14 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

15 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

16 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

17 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

18 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

19 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

20 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

2 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

3 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

4 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

5 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

6 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

7 / 20

Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

8 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

9 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

11 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

12 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

13 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

14 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

15 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

16 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

17 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

18 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

19 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'homozygous'?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction?

2 / 20

When a stimulus is detected by a receptor, it generates a potential difference across it's plasma membrane. What is the name of this potential difference?

3 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

4 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

5 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

6 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

7 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

8 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

9 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

10 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

11 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

12 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

13 / 20

Name protein C in the above diagram.

14 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

15 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

16 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

18 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

19 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

20 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The concentration of nitrates and phosphates in the soil can be increased by the addition of fertiliser, but what ecological damage can this cause?

2 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

3 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

4 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

5 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

6 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

7 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

8 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

9 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

10 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

11 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

12 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

13 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

14 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

15 / 20

A buffer was not used in the above experiment, what would happen to the pH during the experiment.

16 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

17 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

18 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

19 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

20 / 20

Name structure B

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

47

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

3 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

4 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

5 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

6 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

7 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

8 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

9 / 20

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

10 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

11 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

12 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

13 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

14 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

15 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

16 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

17 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

18 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

19 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

20 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

47

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

2 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

3 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

4 / 20

What is humus?

5 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

6 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

7 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

8 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

9 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

10 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle A

11 / 20

What is the stimulus detected by a Pacinian corpuscle? (type your answer)

12 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

13 / 20

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

14 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

15 / 20

Some fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. What are these fungi/root structures called?

16 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

17 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

18 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

19 / 20

Name substance B

20 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

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5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

2 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

3 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

4 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Acetyl Co A produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

5 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

6 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

7 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

8 / 20

Name the above process: The ______ _________

9 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

10 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

11 / 20

Where does glycolysis occur?

12 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

13 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

14 / 20

Name the technique detailed in the above diagram ( spell it correctly!)

15 / 20

Explain the results in tube 3.

16 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

17 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

18 / 20

Once light has hit structure D, and the electrons have left the chlorophyll, they can either be passed on to form F or follow path 'G'. What is path 'G'?

19 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

20 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

2 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

4 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

5 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

6 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

7 / 20

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

8 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

9 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

10 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

11 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

12 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

13 / 20

Stimulation ( either by a generator potential in a receptor cell or a neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane) caused which type of channel to open?

14 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

15 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

16 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

18 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

4 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

5 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

6 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

7 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

8 / 20

Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

11 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

12 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

13 / 20

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

14 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

15 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

16 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

17 / 20

The actual ratio of phenotypes after several matings between the above two hamsters was more similar to 6:1:1:6. How are the alleles linked?

18 / 20

What is an autosome?

19 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

20 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

2 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

3 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

4 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

5 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

6 / 20

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

7 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

8 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

9 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

10 / 20

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

11 / 20

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

12 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

13 / 20

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

14 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

15 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

16 / 20

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

17 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

18 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

19 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

20 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

62

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

2 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

3 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

4 / 20

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

5 / 20

What has happened at position B?

6 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

7 / 20

What happens to a B lymphocyte when it is activated?

8 / 20

Which type of cell travels to the site of infection, and secretes a chemical which kills infected cells?

9 / 20

Which is the best explanation for the effect of ethanol on membrane permeability?

10 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

11 / 20

Which part is hydrophobic?

12 / 20

In a suspected lung cancer tissue sample, a histopathologist observed 19 cells out of a total of 320 in mitosis. The average mitotic index for healthy human lung tissue is 0.04. Is the patient likely to have cancer or not?

13 / 20

Which organelle will be found in supernatant C?

14 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

15 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

16 / 20

Use the scale bar ( assume it measures 2cm) to calculate the actual diameter of virus particle A ( Assume it measures 3.5cm)

17 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

18 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were G?

19 / 20

Which letter represents the enzyme-substrate complex in this diagram?

20 / 20

Are molecules A,B and C isomers of each other?

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37

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Hydrogen ionconcentration is used to calculate pH. Which of the following statements is true?

2 / 20

An ion with a negative charge is called an anion. Which of the following is NOT an anion?

3 / 20

What type of reaction is involved in the breakdown of ATP?

4 / 20

Which enzyme works along the template DNA strand, joining new monomers together?

5 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

 

6 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were C?

7 / 20

How many bonds form between a 'C' and a 'G' ?

8 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

9 / 20

Which letter on the above graph is the ' Saturation' point?

10 / 20

Which of the following is true, in the currently accepted model of enzyme action?

11 / 20

Which letter represents the active site in this diagram?

12 / 20

True or False : Endothermic enzyme controlled reactions do not require activation energy?

13 / 20

What does R stand for on an amino acid?

14 / 20

What substance is added to the sample at the start of a test for lipids?

15 / 20

Which of the following is not true about triglycerides?

16 / 20

The 'tail' of a fatty acid can be a variable length molecule. But what type of molecule is the tail?

17 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

18 / 20

Which is the correct method to test for reducing sugars?

19 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

20 / 20

Which elements are found in carbohydrates?

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24

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 2 and 3.

2 / 20

Digested pathogen proteins can be displayed on the cell surface membrane of a phagocyte. What is this called?

Type your answer.

3 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

4 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from :

5 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

6 / 20

Which type of membrane protein is not involved in facilitated diffusion?

7 / 20

Which of the following molecules can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Lipids

8 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

9 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

10 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

11 / 20

What term is given to describe G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase combined? ( Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

13 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

14 / 20

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

15 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

16 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

17 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

18 / 20

Name part C

19 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

20 / 20

Name this organelle.

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9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

2 / 20

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

3 / 20

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

4 / 20

What happens to the heart during Diastole?

5 / 20

When will the valves close?

6 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

7 / 20

Name the structures labelled A

8 / 20

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

9 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

10 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained inside the leaf?

11 / 20

Which number represents a layer which is 2 or 3 times thicker in desert plants?

12 / 20

Which letter is the spiracles?

13 / 20

Why does the blood flow in an opposite direction the the water?

14 / 20

The blood and water flow in opposite directions, what is this called?

15 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

16 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If someone take 60 breaths over 5 minutes, and takes in 230 cm3, what is their PVR?

17 / 20

Is it important which way round the numbers go when writing a ratio?

18 / 20

What is the volume of the same roughly spherical spongy mesophyll cell with a diameter of 80 µm, using the formula Volume=4/3 pi r 3?

19 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

20 / 20

A Palisade cell is rectangular, and measures 100 µm by 40 µm. What is its surface area?

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6

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

2 / 20

Why do most mutations cause a decrease in reproductive success?

3 / 20

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

4 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

5 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

6 / 20

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

7 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

8 / 20

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

9 / 20

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

10 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

11 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

13 / 20

What is translation?

14 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

15 / 20

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

16 / 20

Which is the true statement about DNA compared to RNA?

17 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

18 / 20

What do H and h represent?

19 / 20

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

20 / 20

What is the proteome of a cell?

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Year 13

47

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

2 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

3 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

4 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

5 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

6 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

7 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

8 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

9 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

10 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

11 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

12 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

13 / 20

True or false : Taxis is a directional movement

14 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

15 / 20

Nitrates and Phosphates are mostly soluble, so they can easily run off into waterways. What is this process called?

16 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

17 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

18 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

19 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. If IDH1 acted as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme, how would it reduce enzyme activity?

20 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

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5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

2 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

3 / 20

Which would be the most accurate method of sampling dry biomass?

4 / 20

Is the column for the link reaction in the above diagram correct?

5 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

6 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

7 / 20

What is represented by molecule Y?

8 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by A?

9 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

10 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

11 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of molecule B?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

13 / 20

What happens to molecule X after it has been generated?

14 / 20

What happens to molecule Y during the conversion of triose phosphate to molecule X?

15 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

16 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

17 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

18 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

19 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

20 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

2 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

3 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

4 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

5 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

6 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

7 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

8 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

9 / 20

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

10 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

11 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

12 / 20

Name the process happening at '4' on the above diagram?

13 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

14 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

15 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

16 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

17 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

18 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

19 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

3 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

5 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

6 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

7 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

8 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

9 / 20

Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

10 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

11 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

12 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

13 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

14 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

15 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

16 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

18 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

19 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

2 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

3 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

4 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

5 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

6 / 20

Sometimes when trying to find a gene which important in a particular disease, it is useful to find out what genes the diseased cells have used (expressed) by extracting mRNA rather than DNA. However, mRNA cannot be used in genetic modifications. What do we need to change it into to be able to use it?

7 / 20

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

8 / 20

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

9 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

10 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

11 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

12 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

13 / 20

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

14 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

15 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

17 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

18 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

19 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

20 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

6

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false : The most effective antibiotic for E Coli O121 will also be the most effective antibiotic for EColi K1.

2 / 20

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

3 / 20

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

4 / 20

The Amish in America are a closed community, which only reproduce with-in their own population. They are descended from 200 Swiss who migrated there. They have a much higher proportion of alleles which cause genetic disorders, rarely seen in the rest of the population. What is this an example of?

5 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

6 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

7 / 20

Which is an example of a Genetic Bottleneck?

8 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

9 / 20

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

10 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

11 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

12 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

13 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

14 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

15 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

16 / 20

What molecule is made in eukaryotic transcription?

17 / 20

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

18 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

19 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

2 / 20

In terms of translocation, what is an 'assimilate'?

3 / 20

What piece of equipment is used to measure transpiration ?

4 / 20

How does an increase in wind speed, increase the rate of transpiration?

5 / 20

What is a Thrombosis?

6 / 20

What has happened at position C?

7 / 20

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm3 min-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

8 / 20

This bar chart shows the risk of CVD with differing amounts of cigarettes smoked per day. Is there a significant difference in risk between smoking no cigarettes, and smoking 1 - 19 cigarettes a day?

9 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

10 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

11 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the kidneys?

12 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Pulmonary Vein?

13 / 20

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

14 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

15 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

16 / 20

What maintains the concentration gradients for gaseous exchange in the tracheoles?

17 / 20

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria infecting the lungs, where amongst other effects it reduces tidal volume. What happens to the ventilation rate of sufferers?

18 / 20

Which muscles contract when you exhale at rest?

19 / 20

Which term best describes breathing?

20 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

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Cells Random Retrieval

24

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

2 / 20

Which term describes a solution with a lower water potential than the cells bathed in it?

3 / 20

During co-transport of glucose in the ileum, active transport is needed to establish a concentration gradient of which substance?

4 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Why did flask F plateau?

5 / 20

Does a concentration gradient need to be established before facilitated diffusion can take place?

6 / 20

Which is the best explanation for the effect of ethanol on membrane permeability?

7 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

8 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

9 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

10 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

11 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

13 / 20

Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?

14 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

15 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

16 / 20

True or false : Prokaryotic DNA coils around histones.

17 / 20

Name structure A

18 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

19 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

20 / 20

Name this organelle.

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