Control of Expression Random Retrieval

8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

2 / 20

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

3 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

4 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

5 / 20

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

6 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

7 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

8 / 20

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

9 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

10 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

11 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

12 / 20

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

13 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

14 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

15 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

16 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

17 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

18 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

19 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

20 / 20

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

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Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

2 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

3 / 20

True or false : Succession involves only the change of biotic factors ( Not abiotic).

4 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

5 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

6 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

7 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

8 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

9 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

10 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

11 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

12 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

13 / 20

Drosophila fruit flies can have either vestigial wings (w)or wild-type wings (W). If 20% of the population have vestigial wings, what proportion of the population are homozygous dominant?

14 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

15 / 20

What is the formula for the Hardy Weinberg equation?

16 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

17 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

18 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

19 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

20 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

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Responding to Change Random Retrieval

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

3 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

4 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

5 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

6 / 20

Can the potential difference created by a receptor have different values depending on the size of the stimulus?

7 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

8 / 20

What reduces the concentration of neurotransmitter in a synapse after it has diffused across?

9 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

10 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

11 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

12 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

13 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

14 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

15 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

16 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

17 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he placed a black cover over the tip show?

18 / 20

In shoot tips which are lit from the side, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found?

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

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The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Some fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. What are these fungi/root structures called?

2 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

3 / 20

What is the formula for NPP?

4 / 20

The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

5 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

6 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

7 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

8 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

9 / 20

How many molecules of Y will be produced by the krebs cycle from a single molecule of glucose?

10 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

11 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

12 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

13 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

14 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

15 / 20

Name substance D

16 / 20

Which chemical does 'E' represent?

17 / 20

What is structure D?

18 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

19 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

20 / 20

Name structure B

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

45

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

2 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

3 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

4 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

5 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

6 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

7 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

8 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

9 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

10 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

11 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

12 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

13 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

14 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

15 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

16 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

17 / 20

Which of the following is true?

18 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

19 / 20

In this investigation, are the yeast respiring anaerobically or aerobically ?

20 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

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Biology Random Retrieval Y13

45

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

2 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

3 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

4 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

5 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

6 / 20

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

7 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

8 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

9 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

10 / 20

The diagram above shows a cross section of a human eye. Name layer A (Type your answer).

11 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

12 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

13 / 20

True or False: Synapses can only transmit an impulse in one direction?

14 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

15 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

16 / 20

Name the process happening at '4' on the above diagram?

17 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

18 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

19 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

20 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

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5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is 'Guano'?

2 / 20

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

3 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

4 / 20

Which term describes an organism which feeds on dead organic matter and digests their food externally? (watch your spelling)

5 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

6 / 20

Which would be the most accurate method of sampling dry biomass?

7 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

8 / 20

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

9 / 20

Name molecule 'Z'

10 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by A?

11 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. If IDH1 acted as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme, how would it reduce enzyme activity?

12 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

13 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

14 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

15 / 20

What happens to molecule Y during the conversion of triose phosphate to molecule X?

16 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

17 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

18 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

19 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

20 / 20

Name structure E

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

2 / 20

What is the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction?

3 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

4 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

5 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

6 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

7 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

8 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

9 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

10 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

11 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

12 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

13 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

14 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, you hypothesised that a woodlouse responds by kinesis to a change in light intensity. What would be the best way to measure a response which shows kinesis?

16 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he placed a black cover over the tip show?

18 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

19 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is it called when succession is stopped artificially?

2 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

3 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

4 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

5 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

6 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

7 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

8 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

9 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

10 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

11 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by a physical barrier between two populations such as a body of water?

12 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

13 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

14 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

15 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

16 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

17 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

18 / 20

What is an autosome?

19 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

20 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

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8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

2 / 20

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

3 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

4 / 20

What causes epigenetic markers to be added or removed from DNA?

5 / 20

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

6 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

7 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

8 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

9 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

10 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

11 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

12 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

14 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

15 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

16 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

17 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

18 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

19 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

20 / 20

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

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Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

50

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

During Metaphase 1, the homologous pairs can line up with either the paternal chromosome above, or the maternal chromosome above. What is this phenomenon called?

2 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

3 / 20

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

4 / 20

Which is the true statement about DNA compared to RNA?

5 / 20

When will the valves close?

6 / 20

Why might the FEV be lower for person B?

7 / 20

What is the volume of the same roughly spherical spongy mesophyll cell with a diameter of 80 µm, using the formula Volume=4/3 pi r 3?

8 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

9 / 20

In a suspected lung cancer tissue sample, a histopathologist observed 19 cells out of a total of 320 in mitosis. The average mitotic index for healthy human lung tissue is 0.04. Is the patient likely to have cancer or not?

10 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

11 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

12 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

13 / 20

Which of these structures is completely absent in eukaryotic cells?

14 / 20

What is structure D called?

15 / 20

Are the bonds between water molecules stronger or weaker than covalent bonds?

 

16 / 20

On the above graph, lines A and B represent the same enzyme, in identical conditions; the only difference is the temperature.

What would happen to the red line after this point ?

17 / 20

Which word best describes the shape of the substrate?

18 / 20

What is the next reagent to be added after this initial treatment?

19 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

20 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

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34

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Water has a high specific heat capacity, why is this useful to organisms?

2 / 20

What charge will be on the hydrogen atoms in this molecule?

3 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Dispersive method ( fragments from each strand mixed), what would the DNA bands look like after two generations in N14 medium (Tube B)?

4 / 20

What type of bond forms between complementary base pairs?

5 / 20

Name the pentose sugar found in DNA.

6 / 20

DNA and RNA are both polymers of which monomer?

7 / 20

Explain how non-competitive inhibitors reduce rate.

8 / 20

Where do non-competitive inhibitors bind?

9 / 20

How do competitive inhibitors bring about a decrease in rate?

10 / 20

Which points on the above graph show when the enzyme is denatured?

11 / 20

Which letter on the above graph shows when the most enzyme-substrate complexes will be formed?

12 / 20

In this reaction, what is the activation energy for the enzyme catalysed reaction?

13 / 20

Which letter represents the enzyme-substrate complex in this diagram?

14 / 20

What is the function of the active site?

a) To hold the substrate in such a way as to strain the bonds so they are easier to break. or
b) To hold the substrate in such a way, as to allow new bonds to form.

15 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

16 / 20

True or False : Endothermic enzyme controlled reactions do not require activation energy?

17 / 20

Which of these two molecules is a saturated fatty acid?

18 / 20

What subunits make up a single triglyceride?

19 / 20

Molecule D is NOT alpha glucose. What is wrong with it ?

20 / 20

What type of sugar is fructose?

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20

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

2 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

3 / 20

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

4 / 20

Is a higher water potential...

5 / 20

What type of transport is osmosis?

6 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

7 / 20

True or false : Active transport can go down a concentration gradient, or up a concentration gradient.

8 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will increase the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

 

9 / 20

Name molecule I.

10 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

11 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

12 / 20

What term is given to describe G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase combined? ( Spell it correctly)

13 / 20

Why must the solution used to homogenise be cold?

14 / 20

Which of the following organelles are visible with a light microscope?

a) Nucleus
b) Lysosomes
c) Chloroplasts

15 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

16 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

17 / 20

Bacterial cell division creates.

18 / 20

Name part C

19 / 20

Name this organelle.

20 / 20

Which out of the following cell types are eukaryotic?

A = Animal, B=Bacterial, P=Plants, F=Fungi

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7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'source' ?

3 / 20

What piece of equipment is used to measure transpiration ?

4 / 20

What happens to the heart during Diastole?

5 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

6 / 20

Capillaries are made only out of one layer of cells called endothelium. Why is this?

7 / 20

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

8 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

9 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

10 / 20

What unit do we use to measure the concentration of oxygen in the tissue?

11 / 20

What term describes the haem groups which contain iron?

12 / 20

Why is haemoglobin described as being 'Quaternary'?

13 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

14 / 20

Which letter represents the part that can control water loss?

15 / 20

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

16 / 20

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria infecting the lungs, where amongst other effects it reduces tidal volume. What happens to the ventilation rate of sufferers?

17 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

18 / 20

What shape is the diaphragm when it is contracted?

19 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

20 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

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3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false : The most effective antibiotic for E Coli O121 will also be the most effective antibiotic for EColi K1.

2 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

3 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

4 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

5 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

6 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

7 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

8 / 20

A sheep cheek cell which is not dividing has 54 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present during Meiotic Prophase 1 in the testes?

9 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

10 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

11 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

13 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

14 / 20

What does the 'm' stand for in mRNA?

15 / 20

The genetic code on RNA is read in a set of three bases called a...

16 / 20

What word describes the fact there is more than one set of three bases for each amino acid?

17 / 20

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are not an homologous pair?

18 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

19 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

20 / 20

Eukaryotic DNA is stored, wrapped around which type of protein?

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Year 13

45

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

2 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

3 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

4 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

5 / 20

What is the native climax community in the UK?

6 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

7 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

8 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

9 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

10 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

11 / 20

Honey bees can detect the polarised light from the sun and use it to navigate even in cloudy weather. Is this taxis or kinesis?

12 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

13 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he placed a black cover over the tip show?

14 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

15 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

16 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

17 / 20

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

18 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

19 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

20 / 20

Name structure B

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5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

3 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

4 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

5 / 20

In the absence of oxygen as the final electron acceptor, some processes of aerobic respiration cannot occur. Some of the processes however can continue, which is the last stage that can still function?

6 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

7 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

8 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

9 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

10 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

11 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

12 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

13 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

14 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. In each trial scientists collected oxygen for 15 minutes. Calculate the difference in oxygen produced from mutant plants at low and high light intensities at a light intensity of 500 μmol photons m–2s–1. Measured in μmol O2 mg–1 hour.

15 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

16 / 20

How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required to balance the number of carbon atoms to produce one glucose molecule?

17 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

18 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

19 / 20

Where does the energy needed for the splitting of water originate?

20 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction?

2 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

3 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

4 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle A

5 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

6 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

7 / 20

In order for an action potential to be generated in a Pacinian corpuscle, what must happen?

8 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

9 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

11 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

12 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

13 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

14 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

15 / 20

Name protein A in the above diagram.

16 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

17 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

18 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

19 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

2 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

3 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

5 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

6 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

7 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

8 / 20

Population growth can be exponential . How would we turn a curved population curve into a straight line graph?

9 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

10 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

11 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

12 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

13 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around a middle or mid value, and outliers decrease?

14 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

15 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

16 / 20

17 / 20

If two genes are on the same chromosome, how do we say they are linked?

18 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

19 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

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8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

2 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

3 / 20

What causes epigenetic markers to be added or removed from DNA?

4 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

5 / 20

What is 'Epigenetics'?

6 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

7 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

8 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

9 / 20

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

10 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

11 / 20

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

12 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

13 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

14 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

15 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

16 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

17 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

18 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

19 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

20 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

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Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

2 / 20

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

3 / 20

A mutation in a population of bed bugs in New York City caused the bedbugs to have a thicker, waxier exoskeleton. Why will the allele for thicker , waxier exoskeleton in bed bugs increase in the population?

4 / 20

How do new alleles occur in a population?

5 / 20

Why do the modern day population of Tristan De Cunha has a much higher than average incidence of the genetic disorder Retinitis Pigmentosa?

6 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

7 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

8 / 20

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

9 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

10 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

11 / 20

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

12 / 20

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

13 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

14 / 20

How many tRNA molecules can fit into a ribosome at any time?

15 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

16 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

17 / 20

What is an allele?

18 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

19 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

20 / 20

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

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Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is translocation the movement of?

2 / 20

How do you calculate the rate of water transpired by the plant?

3 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

4 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - No end plates on these cells

5 / 20

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

6 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

7 / 20

Does this chart show a causal relationship between Risk of CVD and smoking?

8 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

9 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

10 / 20

Why is it useful that the Bohr Effect reduces the percentage saturation of Haemoglobin with oxygen?

11 / 20

During the Bohr Effect, what happens to the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?

12 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

13 / 20

Which number represents a layer which is 2 or 3 times thicker in desert plants?

14 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a gill filament?

15 / 20

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

16 / 20

The Great White Shark and Black-tipped Reef Shark are two species which must keep swimming to stay alive. Why is this?

17 / 20

Emphysema is caused by what?

18 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

19 / 20

Why can single celled organisms exchange many substances by simple diffusion over the plasma membrane?

20 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

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Cells Random Retrieval

20

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Calculate the percentage increase in the mean concentration of antibodies in blood between samples 2 and 3.

2 / 20

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

3 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

4 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

5 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will increase the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

 

6 / 20

Which part of the phospholipid bilayer prevents sodium ions leaving via simple diffusion?

7 / 20

In this version of required practical 4, 1cm beetroot cores are soaked in different concentrations of ethanol - 0%, 10%, 20%and 30%. Which graph represents the expected results ?

8 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

9 / 20

Which molecules are found in A?

10 / 20

Name structure G.

11 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

12 / 20

To calculate the 'Mitotic Index' you need to stain your root tip cells. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate stain to view Chromosomes with?

13 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

14 / 20

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

15 / 20

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

16 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

17 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

18 / 20

What is structure D called?

19 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

20 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

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