Control of Expression Random Retrieval

6

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

2 / 20

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

3 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

4 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

5 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

6 / 20

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

7 / 20

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

8 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

9 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

10 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

11 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

12 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

14 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

15 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

16 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

17 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

18 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

19 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

Your score is

0%

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

2 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

3 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

4 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

5 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

6 / 20

How many samples should you take to get reliable data?

7 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

8 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

9 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

10 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

11 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

12 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

13 / 20

14 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

15 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

16 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

17 / 20

What does the term 'Codominance' mean?

18 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

19 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

20 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

Your score is

0%

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

9

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

3 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

4 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

5 / 20

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

6 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

7 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

8 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

9 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

10 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

11 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

12 / 20

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

13 / 20

Name protein A in the above diagram.

14 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

15 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

16 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

17 / 20

In root tips growing parallel to the soil, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found ?

18 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

19 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

Your score is

0%

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

4

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

2 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

3 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

4 / 20

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

5 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

6 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

7 / 20

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

8 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

9 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

10 / 20

Which of the following substances is NOT a co-enzyme?

11 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

12 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

13 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

14 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. Why did the scientists measure the rate of oxygen produced?

16 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

17 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

18 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

19 / 20

What is structure D?

20 / 20

Name structure B

Your score is

0%

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

40

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

2 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

3 / 20

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

4 / 20

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

5 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

6 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

7 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

8 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

9 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

10 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

11 / 20

What is the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction?

12 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

13 / 20

What reduces the concentration of neurotransmitter in a synapse after it has diffused across?

14 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

15 / 20

Name the process happening at '4' on the above diagram?

16 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, what is the Independent variable?

17 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

18 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

19 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

20 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

Your score is

0%

Biology Random Retrieval Y13

40

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

2 / 20

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

3 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

4 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

5 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

6 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

7 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

8 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

9 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

10 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

11 / 20

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

12 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

13 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

14 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

15 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'X'.

16 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

17 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

18 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

19 / 20

Name molecule X

20 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

Your score is

0%

4

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

2 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

3 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

4 / 20

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

5 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

6 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of molecule B?

7 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

8 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

9 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

10 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

11 / 20

Name molecule X

12 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

13 / 20

Where does glycolysis occur?

14 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

16 / 20

Name substance B

17 / 20

Name substance D

18 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

19 / 20

What molecule is represented by 'B' on the diagram?

20 / 20

Name structure E

Your score is

0%

9

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which protein blocks the actin-myosin binding site in a relaxed myofibril?

2 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

3 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

4 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

5 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

6 / 20

When a stimulus is detected by a receptor, it generates a potential difference across it's plasma membrane. What is the name of this potential difference?

7 / 20

If the concentration of neurotransmitter secreted is very low, then threshold may not be reached. What term describes the process of increasing neurotransmitter release? either by multiple presynaptic neurones forming a single synapse or increasing the frequency of neurotransmitter release. Type your answer

 

8 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

9 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

10 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

11 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

12 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

13 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

14 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

15 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

16 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

18 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

19 / 20

Which of the following is true?

20 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

Your score is

0%

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

2 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

3 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

4 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

5 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

6 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

7 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

8 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

9 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

10 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

11 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

12 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

13 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

14 / 20

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

15 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

16 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

17 / 20

What does 'p' represent ?

18 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

19 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

20 / 20

How could you tell if Marfan Syndrome is Dominant by looking at a pedigree ( family tree)?

Your score is

0%

6

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

2 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

3 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

4 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

5 / 20

What are iPS cells?

6 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

7 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

8 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

9 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

10 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

11 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

12 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

13 / 20

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

14 / 20

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

15 / 20

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

16 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

17 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

18 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

19 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

20 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

Your score is

0%

Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

40

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

2 / 20

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

3 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

4 / 20

What molecule is made in eukaryotic transcription?

5 / 20

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

6 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

7 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

8 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If the breathing rate is 7, and the PVR is 1.4 dm3 min -1, what is the tidal volume?

9 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

10 / 20

Is it important which way round the numbers go when writing a ratio?

11 / 20

Which type of cell can engulf a pathogen?

12 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

13 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is B?

14 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

15 / 20

In this experiment bacteria were grown in a growth medium containing N15. What isN15?

16 / 20

How many types of organic base are there in DNA and RNA?

17 / 20

True or False : Endothermic enzyme controlled reactions do not require activation energy?

18 / 20

The 'tail' of a fatty acid can be a variable length molecule. But what type of molecule is the tail?

19 / 20

What elements are lipids made out of?

20 / 20

What type of reaction is used to join two monosaccharides?

Your score is

0%

33

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of reaction is involved in the breakdown of ATP?

2 / 20

What name is given to the DNA fragments labelled C in the diagram?

3 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only bind to double stranded DNA?

4 / 20

Which molecules bind to the exposed bases when DNA becomes single stranded?

5 / 20

What type of bonds are broken between the DNA bases when replication starts?

6 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

7 / 20

What type of bond forms between complementary base pairs?

8 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled B.

9 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

10 / 20

Explain why line B forms a plateau:

11 / 20

Which points on the above graph show when the enzyme is denatured?

12 / 20

What substance are enzymes made out of?

13 / 20

Water is produced during the bonding of two amino acids. Where do the hydrogen and oxygen molecules originate from?

14 / 20

Fats that contain unsaturated fatty acids (compared to saturated) are more likely to have:

15 / 20

What is the general formula for a saturated fatty acid?

16 / 20

What type of glycosidic bond form the main body for the branches?

 

17 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

18 / 20

Which two types of polysaccharide form starch?

19 / 20

What are the products of a condensation reaction between two alpha glucose molecules?

20 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

Your score is

0%

19

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of cell travels to the site of infection, and secretes a chemical which kills infected cells?

2 / 20

Look at the above graph, what is the concentration of sodium chloride inside the potato cells?

3 / 20

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

4 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

5 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

6 / 20

Which molecule makes up part D?

7 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

8 / 20

Which part is hydrophobic?

9 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

11 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

12 / 20

Which type of electron microscope show the density of the specimen as a dark patch?

13 / 20

What does SEM stand for?

14 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

15 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

16 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

17 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

18 / 20

True or false : Prokaryotic DNA coils around histones.

19 / 20

Name part C

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

Your score is

0%

7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is transpiration the movement of?

2 / 20

What is an Atheroma?

3 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

4 / 20

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

5 / 20

Name the structures labelled A

6 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

7 / 20

Capillaries are made only out of one layer of cells called endothelium. Why is this?

8 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

9 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

10 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the kidneys?

11 / 20

Why is haemoglobin described as being 'Quaternary'?

12 / 20

How does water move into the guard cells?

13 / 20

Which letter is the spiracles?

14 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a gill filament?

15 / 20

What shape is the diaphragm when it is contracted?

16 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

17 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

18 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

19 / 20

What is the volume of the same palisde cell measuring 100 µm by 40 µm?

20 / 20

The surface area in biology often refers roughly to how much skin an organism has, or how much cell membrane a cell has. Which of the following will have the biggest surface area, if they are all approximately the same length and width?

Your score is

0%

3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

2 / 20

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

3 / 20

How do new alleles occur in a population?

4 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

5 / 20

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

6 / 20

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

7 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

8 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

9 / 20

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

10 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

11 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

12 / 20

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

13 / 20

The genetic code on RNA is read in a set of three bases called a...

14 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

15 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

16 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes...

 

17 / 20

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

18 / 20

What is an allele?

19 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

20 / 20

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are an homologous pair?

Your score is

0%

Year 13

40

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

2 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

3 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

4 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

5 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

6 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

7 / 20

Using mark release recapture, what would the population of woodlice be if : 27 were caught in the first sample , and 16 unmarked caught in the second, and 3 were marked?

8 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

9 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

10 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

11 / 20

What does the term 'Codominance' mean?

12 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

13 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

14 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

16 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

17 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

18 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

19 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

20 / 20

What is structure D?

Your score is

0%

4

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

3 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

4 / 20

External digestion involves the secretion of enzymes outside of the organisms outer-most layer. Which term best describes this?

5 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

6 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

7 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

8 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Ethanol

9 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

10 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. If IDH1 acted as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme, how would it reduce enzyme activity?

11 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

12 / 20

How many pyruvate molecules are made from one glucose molecule in glycolysis?

13 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

14 / 20

Name the above process: The ______ _________

15 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

16 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

17 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

18 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

19 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

20 / 20

Name structure E

Your score is

0%

9

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which protein blocks the actin-myosin binding site in a relaxed myofibril?

2 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

4 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

5 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

6 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

7 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

8 / 20

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

9 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

10 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

11 / 20

Name protein C in the above diagram.

12 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

13 / 20

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

14 / 20

How can charged ions cross a plasma membrane?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

16 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

18 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

19 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

20 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

Your score is

0%

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

2 / 20

What is the equation for Mark Release Recapture?

3 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

4 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

5 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

6 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

7 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

8 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

9 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

10 / 20

Drosophila is a type of fruit fly which is used in many genetic experiments. It has two alleles for eye colour : Red ( R) and White (r). If 0.8 of the alleles are red, how many are white?

11 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

12 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

13 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

14 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

15 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

16 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

17 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

18 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born short haired and white?

19 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

Your score is

0%

6

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

3 / 20

What bond does DNA ligase create?

4 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

5 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

6 / 20

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

7 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

8 / 20

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

9 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

10 / 20

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

11 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

12 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

13 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

14 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

15 / 20

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred?

17 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

18 / 20

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

19 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

Your score is

0%

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The development of antibiotic resistance is an example of what type of selection?

2 / 20

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

3 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

4 / 20

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

5 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

6 / 20

Which of the following will reduce genetic diversity in a population?

7 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

8 / 20

There are now two identical copies of each chromosome, held together by the centromere. Which term best describes these identical copies?

9 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

10 / 20

What word do we use to describe the pairs of chromosomes?

11 / 20

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

12 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

13 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

14 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

15 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

17 / 20

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are not an homologous pair?

18 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes...

 

19 / 20

What is an allele?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

Your score is

0%

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'source' ?

3 / 20

Which of the following IS NOT a way that smoking contributes to the risk of CVD?

4 / 20

What has happened at position C?

5 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

6 / 20

How many oxygen molecules can each haem group carry?

7 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have hairs over the stomatal pits?

8 / 20

Why are there large gaps between the mesophyll cells ?

9 / 20

Which number represents a layer which is 2 or 3 times thicker in desert plants?

10 / 20

Which letter is the tracheae?

11 / 20

What is 'Tidal Volume'?

12 / 20

Sufferers of emphysema also have reduced elastin in the alveolar walls. What effect does this have on breathing?

13 / 20

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

14 / 20

Why would someone with Pulmonary Fibrosis have a reduced rate of oxygen diffusion?

15 / 20

True or False - Air moves into the lungs because the internal pressure in the lungs drops below the atmospheric pressure?

16 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

17 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at colder temperatures?

18 / 20

What is the volume of the same roughly spherical spongy mesophyll cell with a diameter of 80 µm, using the formula Volume=4/3 pi r 3?

19 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

20 / 20

What is the volume of the same palisde cell measuring 100 µm by 40 µm?

Your score is

0%

Cells Random Retrieval

19

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

2 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

3 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

4 / 20

Read the above passage. Before reweighing, the potato was blotted dry. Which of the following is NOT a reason for doing this?

5 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

6 / 20

Why can more pigment leak out across the plasma membrane at a higher temperature (800C) ?

7 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

8 / 20

Name molecule I.

9 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

10 / 20

The process shown in the diagram is 'Cell ___________' (spell it correctly)

11 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

12 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produces a 2D image?

13 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

14 / 20

Use the scale bar ( assume it measures 2cm) to calculate the actual diameter of virus particle A ( Assume it measures 3.5cm)

15 / 20

The Christae of the mitochondrion shown in this picture are 2m x 10-8wide (A). How many 'nm' is this ?

16 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

17 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

18 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

19 / 20

Name structure A

20 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

Your score is

0%