Biology Random Retrieval Y13

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

2 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

3 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

4 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

5 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

6 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

7 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

8 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

9 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

10 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

11 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

12 / 20

The actual ratio of phenotypes after several matings between the above two hamsters was more similar to 6:1:1:6. How are the alleles linked?

13 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

14 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

15 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

16 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

17 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

18 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

19 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

20 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

2 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

3 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

4 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

5 / 20

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

6 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

7 / 20

Which would be the most accurate method of sampling dry biomass?

8 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Y'.

9 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

10 / 20

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

11 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in animal cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Lactic Acid

12 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

13 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

14 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

15 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

16 / 20

What happens to molecule Y during the conversion of triose phosphate to molecule X?

17 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

18 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

19 / 20

Name molecule Z

20 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

3 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

4 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

5 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

6 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

7 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

8 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

9 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

11 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

12 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

13 / 20

Stimulation ( either by a generator potential in a receptor cell or a neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane) caused which type of channel to open?

14 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

16 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

17 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

18 / 20

How does IAA become unevenly distributed?

19 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

20 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the native climax community in the UK?

2 / 20

What is humus?

3 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

4 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

5 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

6 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

7 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

8 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

9 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

10 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

11 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

12 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

13 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

14 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

15 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

16 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

17 / 20

18 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

19 / 20

What does the term 'Codominance' mean?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'homozygous'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

2 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

3 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

4 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

5 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

6 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

7 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

8 / 20

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

9 / 20

What is an advantage of using iPS cells to treat degenerative disorders, instead of embryonic stem cells?

10 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

11 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

12 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

13 / 20

What is the removal of introns called?

14 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

15 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

16 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

17 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

18 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

19 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

20 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

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