Biology Random Retrieval Y13

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

2 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

3 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

4 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

5 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

6 / 20

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

7 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

8 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

9 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

11 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

12 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

13 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

14 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

15 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

16 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

17 / 20

How do you calculate the Rf value for a substance?

18 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

19 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

20 / 20

Name structure E

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

3 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

4 / 20

Which would be the most accurate method of sampling dry biomass?

5 / 20

The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

6 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

7 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Ethanol

8 / 20

What should go in box 'X'?

9 / 20

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

10 / 20

Name molecule 'Z'

11 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

12 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

13 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

14 / 20

How many pyruvate molecules are made from one glucose molecule in glycolysis?

15 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

16 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

17 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. What is the saturation point of Normal plants grown in high light?

18 / 20

How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

19 / 20

What molecule is represented by 'B' on the diagram?

20 / 20

Name structure B

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

2 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

3 / 20

When a stimulus is detected by a receptor, it generates a potential difference across it's plasma membrane. What is the name of this potential difference?

4 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

5 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

6 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

7 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

8 / 20

True or False: Synapses can only transmit an impulse in one direction?

9 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

10 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

11 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

12 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

13 / 20

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

14 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

15 / 20

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

16 / 20

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

17 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

18 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

19 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

2 / 20

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

3 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

4 / 20

Which type of selection is human birthweight showing? (As low birth - weight babies and high birth - weight babies are less likely to survive)

5 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

6 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

7 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

8 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

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In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

10 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

11 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

12 / 20

Drosophila fruit flies can have either vestigial wings (w)or wild-type wings (W). If 20% of the population have vestigial wings, what proportion of the population are homozygous dominant?

13 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

14 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

15 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

16 / 20

17 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

18 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

19 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

20 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

3 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

4 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

5 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

6 / 20

What is an advantage of using iPS cells to treat degenerative disorders, instead of embryonic stem cells?

7 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

8 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

9 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 20

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

11 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

12 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

13 / 20

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

14 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

15 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

16 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

17 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

18 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

19 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

20 / 20

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

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