Biology Random Retrieval Y13

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

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Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

2 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

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The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

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Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

5 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

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Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

7 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

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What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

9 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

10 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

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The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

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13 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

14 / 20

Name protein A in the above diagram.

15 / 20

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

16 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

17 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

18 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

19 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

20 / 20

Where does the energy needed for the splitting of water originate?

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5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

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The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

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Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

3 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

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Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

5 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

6 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

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The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

8 / 20

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

9 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in animal cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Lactic Acid

10 / 20

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

11 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. If IDH1 acted as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme, how would it reduce enzyme activity?

12 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

13 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

14 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

15 / 20

Name the technique detailed in the above diagram ( spell it correctly!)

16 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

17 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

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How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

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Name substance C

20 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

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10

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

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Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

3 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

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The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

5 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

6 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

7 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

8 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

9 / 20

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

10 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

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The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

12 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

13 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

14 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

15 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

16 / 20

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

17 / 20

How can charged ions cross a plasma membrane?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

18 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

19 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

20 / 20

Which of the following is true?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is humus?

2 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

3 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

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True or false : Succession involves only the change of biotic factors ( Not abiotic).

5 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

6 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

7 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

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A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

9 / 20

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

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Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

11 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

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Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

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Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

14 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

15 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

16 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

17 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

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19 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

20 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

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8

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

2 / 20

What bond does DNA ligase create?

3 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

4 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

5 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

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A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

7 / 20

What is 'Epigenetics'?

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iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

9 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

10 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

11 / 20

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

12 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

13 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

14 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

15 / 20

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

16 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

17 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

18 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

19 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

20 / 20

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

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