Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

78

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

2 / 20

The Western Corn Rootworm has developed resistance to a protein pesticide found in transgenic crops. The protein no longer damages the digestive tract of the insect.

3 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

4 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

5 / 20

What is the proteome of a cell?

6 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

7 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

8 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

9 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

10 / 20

If someone's PVR is 1.5dm3 min -1, and their tidal volume is 150 cm 3, how many breaths do they take in a minute?

11 / 20

Some animals are adapted to higher temperatures in their environment. Which of the following is an example of this ?

12 / 20

Which is the best explanation for the effect of ethanol on membrane permeability?

13 / 20

To look at a sample under a microscope, you need to prepare a temporary mount. Why does the specimen have to be thin?

14 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

15 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

16 / 20

How many types of organic base are there in DNA and RNA?

17 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

18 / 20

What is the general formula for a saturated fatty acid?

19 / 20

What feature does this polysaccharide have, that makes it straight?

20 / 20

What role does this polysaccharide have?

 

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40

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

An ion with a negative charge is called an anion. Which of the following is NOT an anion?

2 / 20

Which process requires the use of ATP?

3 / 20

In this experiment bacteria grown in N15, were then treansfered to N14, and allowed to divide for two generations ( tubeB). Describe what the cenrifuged DNA bands would look like.

4 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were T?

5 / 20

How many bonds form between a 'C' and a 'G' ?

6 / 20

What base does the 'A' stand for?

7 / 20

How many types of organic base are there in DNA and RNA?

8 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled A

9 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a non-competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

10 / 20

How do competitive inhibitors bring about a decrease in rate?

11 / 20

In this reaction, what percentage difference in energy needed for an enzyme catalysed reaction, compared to an uncatalysed one?

12 / 20

What substance are enzymes made out of?

13 / 20

What is the name of the bond that forms between two amino acids?

14 / 20

What is the name of the NH2 group on an amino acid molecule?

15 / 20

What is the name of the COOH group on an amino acid molecule?

16 / 20

What is the standard structure of a phospholipid?

17 / 20

What type of reaction is the formation of a triglyceride from its subunits?

18 / 20

What is the formula for the group at the end of a fatty acid where it bonds to the glycerol?

19 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

20 / 20

Is one of the monomers beta glucose ?

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27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 2 and 3.

2 / 20

What is the primary function of a vaccination?

3 / 20

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

4 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from:

5 / 20

What is the water potential of pure water?

6 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Why did flask F plateau?

7 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

8 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

9 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

10 / 20

The process shown in the diagram is 'Cell ___________' (spell it correctly)

11 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

12 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

13 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

14 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

15 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

16 / 20

Which of the following organelles has a different structure in prokaryotes when compared to eukaryotes.

17 / 20

What ISN'T organelle A?

18 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

19 / 20

Name this organelle.

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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10

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following would decrease the rate of transpiration?

2 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

3 / 20

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

4 / 20

Which of the following IS NOT a way that smoking contributes to the risk of CVD?

5 / 20

What has happened at position A?

6 / 20

Capillaries are made only out of one layer of cells called endothelium. Why is this?

7 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

8 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Vena Cava?

9 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

10 / 20

Sufferers of emphysema also have reduced elastin in the alveolar walls. What effect does this have on breathing?

11 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If someone take 60 breaths over 5 minutes, and takes in 230 cm3, what is their PVR?

12 / 20

Which term best describes breathing?

13 / 20

Which letter represents the trachea?

14 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

15 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

16 / 20

Multicellular organisms cannot absorb enough substances by diffusion. Why is this?

17 / 20

Is it important which way round the numbers go when writing a ratio?

18 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a spongy mesophyll cell with the surface area of 24,000 µm 2, and a volume of 110,000µm 3?

19 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

20 / 20

What is the volume of the same palisde cell measuring 100 µm by 40 µm?

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10

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

2 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

3 / 20

Which of the following has contributed to the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

4 / 20

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

5 / 20

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

6 / 20

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

7 / 20

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

8 / 20

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

9 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

10 / 20

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

11 / 20

How many chromatids are present in a human cell at the start of meiosis?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

13 / 20

What word describes cells which contain pairs of chromosomes?

14 / 20

What stops the RNA polymerase?

15 / 20

What bond is formed between the free RNA bases, once they have formed complementary base pairs?

16 / 20

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

17 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

18 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

19 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

3 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

4 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

5 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

6 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

7 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

8 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

9 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

10 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

11 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

12 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

13 / 20

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

14 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

15 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

16 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

17 / 20

What is represented by molecule C?

18 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

19 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

20 / 20

What is structure D?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

2 / 20

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

3 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Z'.

4 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

5 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

6 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

7 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

8 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

9 / 20

Name molecule Z

10 / 20

How many phosphate groups are present in hexose bisphosphate?

11 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

12 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

13 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

14 / 20

How do you calculate the Rf value for a substance?

15 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. What is the saturation point of Normal plants grown in high light?

16 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

17 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

18 / 20

Where in a chloroplast do the Light Independent Reactions ( LIRs) occur? ( watch your spelling!)

19 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

20 / 20

What is structure D?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

2 / 20

The diagram above shows a cross section of a human eye. Name layer A (Type your answer).

3 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

4 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

5 / 20

If the concentration of neurotransmitter secreted is very low, then threshold may not be reached. What term describes the process of increasing neurotransmitter release? either by multiple presynaptic neurones forming a single synapse or increasing the frequency of neurotransmitter release. Type your answer

 

6 / 20

GABA is a neurotransmitter released in some inhibitory synapses in the brain. GABA causes negatively charged chloride ions to enter postsynaptic neurones. Explain how this inhibits postsynaptic neurones

7 / 20

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter which has a role in numerous processes in the brain including pain relief. The release of dopamine can be stimulated by chemicals called endorphins produced in the brain. Endorphins attach to opioid receptors on presynaptic neurones that release dopamine. Morphine is a drug that has a similar structure to endorphins and can provide pain relief, explain how.

8 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

9 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

10 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

11 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

12 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

13 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

14 / 20

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

15 / 20

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

16 / 20

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

17 / 20

True or false : Taxis is a directional movement

18 / 20

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

19 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

20 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

2 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

3 / 20

What is the equation for Mark Release Recapture?

4 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

5 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

6 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

7 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

8 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

9 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

11 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

12 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

13 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

14 / 20

Drosophila fruit flies can have either vestigial wings (w)or wild-type wings (W). If 20% of the population have vestigial wings, what proportion of the population are homozygous dominant?

15 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

16 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

17 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

18 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

19 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

20 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

2 / 20

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

3 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

4 / 20

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

5 / 20

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

6 / 20

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

7 / 20

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

8 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

9 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

10 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

11 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

12 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

13 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

14 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

15 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

16 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

17 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

18 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

19 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

20 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

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