Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

62

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do the modern day population of Tristan De Cunha has a much higher than average incidence of the genetic disorder Retinitis Pigmentosa?

2 / 20

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

3 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

4 / 20

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

5 / 20

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

6 / 20

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

7 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained inside the leaf?

8 / 20

True or False - Air moves into the lungs because the internal pressure in the lungs drops below the atmospheric pressure?

9 / 20

What is the primary function of a vaccination?

10 / 20

What is the water potential of pure water?

11 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

12 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

13 / 20

What happens in S phase?

14 / 20

Name structure B

15 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

16 / 20

What is the difference in the pentose sugar in DNA, compared to RNA?

17 / 20

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

18 / 20

Triglycerides are good at storing energy. Which part of the molecule stores the most energy?

19 / 20

Which of these two molecules is a saturated fatty acid?

20 / 20

Which two types of polysaccharide form starch?

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37

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What does ATP stand for?

2 / 20

In this experiment bacteria were grown in a growth medium containing N15. What isN15?

3 / 20

Which molecules bind to the exposed bases when DNA becomes single stranded?

4 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were T?

5 / 20

What type of bond forms between complementary base pairs?

6 / 20

Explain how non-competitive inhibitors reduce rate.

7 / 20

The optimum temperature for this enzyme is actually 40oC. Describe what the line would look like on the above graph.

8 / 20

This model of enzyme action has now been replaced by another more recent one. What is the more recent model called?

9 / 20

Enzymes are biological catalysts: they speed up reactions. This allows the reactions to happen at...

 

10 / 20

Which of the following is the best description of the 'Quaternary Structure' of a protein?

 

11 / 20

What is the name of this molecule?

12 / 20

Which of the following shows the correct structure of a peptide bond?

13 / 20

What is the name of the bond that forms between two amino acids?

14 / 20

What is the general formula for a saturated fatty acid?

15 / 20

Which of these two molecules is a saturated fatty acid?

16 / 20

What elements are lipids made out of?

17 / 20

What type of glycosidic bond form the main body for the branches?

 

18 / 20

Name the polymer in the picture.

19 / 20

Are all monosaccharides reducing sugars?

20 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

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24

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to a B lymphocyte when it is activated?

2 / 20

Which type of cell activates other immune cells in an immune response?

3 / 20

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

4 / 20

What is the water potential of pure water?

5 / 20

Is a higher water potential...

6 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

7 / 20

Which molecules are found in A?

8 / 20

What substance will structure C be made out of?

9 / 20

Name structure E.

10 / 20

Name molecule J (Spell it correctly)

11 / 20

To calculate the 'Mitotic Index' you need to stain your root tip cells. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate stain to view Chromosomes with?

12 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

13 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

14 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

15 / 20

What term describes the ability to see two separate points, as two separate points. Rather than one large point on an image ? (You need to spell it correctly!)

16 / 20

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

17 / 20

Which of these structures is completely absent in eukaryotic cells?

18 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

19 / 20

What is structure F called?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Water molecules stick together due to what type of bond?

2 / 20

One of the phases of the cardiac cycle is called Atrial Systole. During Atrial Systole, what is happening in the heart during this phase?

3 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

4 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

5 / 20

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

6 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for humming bird haemoglobin?

7 / 20

Why is it useful that the Bohr Effect reduces the percentage saturation of Haemoglobin with oxygen?

8 / 20

What is it called, when Carbon Dioxide causes the dissociation curve to shift?

9 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

10 / 20

How many oxygen molecules can each haem group carry?

11 / 20

What is the function of the lamellae?

12 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

13 / 20

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

14 / 20

Sufferers of emphysema also have reduced elastin in the alveolar walls. What effect does this have on breathing?

15 / 20

What does Pulmonary Ventilation Rate (PVR) mean?

16 / 20

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

17 / 20

Which letter represents the trachea?

18 / 20

Some animals are adapted to higher temperatures in their environment. Which of the following is an example of this ?

19 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

20 / 20

A Palisade cell is rectangular, and measures 100 µm by 40 µm. What is its surface area?

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6

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

2 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

3 / 20

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

4 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

5 / 20

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

6 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

7 / 20

How does recombination increase variation?

8 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

9 / 20

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

10 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

11 / 20

What word describes cells which contain pairs of chromosomes?

12 / 20

Where does translation take place?

13 / 20

What is translation?

14 / 20

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

15 / 20

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

16 / 20

What is the base-pairing pattern in DNA to RNA?

17 / 20

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

18 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

19 / 20

What do H and h represent?

20 / 20

What is the proteome of a cell?

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Year 13

47

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

2 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

3 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

4 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred?

5 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

6 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

7 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

8 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

9 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

10 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

11 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

12 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

13 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

14 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

15 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

16 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

17 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

18 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Z'.

19 / 20

What is passed along the 4 protein complexes - represented by 'W' on the diagram?

20 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

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5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

2 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which type of organism carry out process A?

3 / 20

Many decomposers secrete enzymes to digest organic matter, then absorb the products they require. The digested products which are not required remain in the soil. The digestion of which organic substance will result in the presence of ammonia in the soil?

4 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

5 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

6 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

7 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

8 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

9 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

10 / 20

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

11 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

12 / 20

How many pyruvate molecules are made from one glucose molecule in glycolysis?

13 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Y at the end of glycolysis?

14 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

15 / 20

A buffer was not used in the above experiment, what would happen to the pH during the experiment.

16 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

17 / 20

If six molecules of molecule C are produced, how many will be regenerated into substance A?

18 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

19 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

20 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction?

2 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

3 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

4 / 20

In order for an action potential to be generated in a Pacinian corpuscle, what must happen?

5 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

6 / 20

Can the potential difference created by a receptor have different values depending on the size of the stimulus?

7 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

8 / 20

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter which has a role in numerous processes in the brain including pain relief. The release of dopamine can be stimulated by chemicals called endorphins produced in the brain. Endorphins attach to opioid receptors on presynaptic neurones that release dopamine. Morphine is a drug that has a similar structure to endorphins and can provide pain relief, explain how.

9 / 20

Put the following statements in order to explain what happens at an excitatory synapse:

  • a) Voltage gated calcium channels open.
  • b) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
  • c) If threshold is reached, an action potential is generated
  • d) Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic neurone.
  • e) Arrival of an action potential
  • f) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors with associated sodium channels
  • g) Neurotransmitters diffuse across the cleft
  • h) Sodium ions diffuse into post synaptic membrane

10 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

11 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

12 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

13 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

14 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

15 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

16 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

17 / 20

Honey bees can detect the polarised light from the sun and use it to navigate even in cloudy weather. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

What is the definition of a stimulus?

19 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

4 / 20

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

5 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

6 / 20

Population growth can be exponential . How would we turn a curved population curve into a straight line graph?

7 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

8 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

10 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

11 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

12 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

13 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

14 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

15 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

16 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

17 / 20

18 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

19 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

3 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

4 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

5 / 20

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

6 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

7 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

8 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

9 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

11 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

12 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

13 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

14 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

15 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

17 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

18 / 20

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

19 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

20 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

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