Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

40

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

2 / 20

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

3 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

4 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

5 / 20

What is an allele?

6 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

7 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

8 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

9 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

10 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

11 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

Name structure A

13 / 20

Name this organelle

14 / 20

Which enzyme breaks the bonds between complementary base pairs in preparation for DNA replication?

15 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

 

16 / 20

Which line shows the rate when substrate is limited ?

17 / 20

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

18 / 20

On the above diagram, what does structure '1' represent?

19 / 20

Which of the following is not true about triglycerides?

20 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

Your score is

0%

31

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What word best describes this molecule?

2 / 20

ATP can be used to add a phosphate group onto molecules. What is this process known as?

3 / 20

In this experiment bacteria were grown in a growth medium containing N15. What isN15?

4 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only bind to double stranded DNA?

5 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

 

6 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled B.

7 / 20

DNA and RNA are both polymers of which monomer?

8 / 20

Why does the graph plateau?

9 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

10 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the activation energy with an enzyme?

11 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the product?

12 / 20

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains:

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which bonds form the secondary structure?

13 / 20

What does R stand for on an amino acid?

14 / 20

On the above diagram, what does structure '3' represent?

15 / 20

What is the formula for the group at the end of a fatty acid where it bonds to the glycerol?

16 / 20

Which monomer is the animal storage polysaccharide made out of ?

17 / 20

This polysaccharide of glucose is branched. What is the advantage to the organism of branching ?

18 / 20

What are the products of a condensation reaction between two alpha glucose molecules?

19 / 20

Which diagram shows a glycosidic bond - A or B ?

20 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

Your score is

0%

15

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

2 / 20

What happens to a B lymphocyte when it is activated?

3 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a phagosome?

4 / 20

Which protein needs to be used first in the co-transport of glucose across a membrane. For example in the ileum.

5 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

6 / 20

In this version of required practical 4, 1cm beetroot cores are soaked in different concentrations of ethanol - 0%, 10%, 20%and 30%. Which graph represents the expected results ?

7 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. which tube would you predict shows beetroot incubated at 20 0C?

8 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

9 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

10 / 20

How long is one complete cell cycle on this graph?

11 / 20

Which organelle will be found in supernatant C?

12 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

13 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

14 / 20

Use the scale bar ( assume it measures 2cm) to calculate the actual diameter of virus particle A ( Assume it measures 3.5cm)

15 / 20

The Christae of the mitochondrion shown in this picture are 2m x 10-8wide (A). How many 'nm' is this ?

16 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line B (length) in the image measures 3.5 cm, and the actual cell measures 7μm. What is the magnification of this image of the palisade cell?

17 / 20

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

18 / 20

Which of the following organelles has the SAME structure in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

19 / 20

Name structure B

20 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

Your score is

0%

6

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best explanation for translocation in plants. What does it suggest happens at 'sources'?

2 / 20

Water molecules stick together due to what type of bond?

3 / 20

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm3 , and a HR of 52 bpm?

4 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

5 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

6 / 20

On the graph, which letter shows where it is hardest for oxygen to associate?

7 / 20

What maintains the concentration gradients for gaseous exchange in the tracheoles?

8 / 20

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

9 / 20

Why does the blood flow in an opposite direction the the water?

10 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

11 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a gill filament?

12 / 20

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

13 / 20

Emphysema is caused by what?

14 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

15 / 20

Which muscles contract when you exhale at rest?

16 / 20

Which of the following is the correct sequence for inhalation?

17 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

18 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

19 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. You have chosen one which will decolourise the quickest, why did you choose that block?

20 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a spongy mesophyll cell with the surface area of 24,000 µm 2, and a volume of 110,000µm 3?

Your score is

0%

2

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

2 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

3 / 20

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

4 / 20

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

5 / 20

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

6 / 20

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

7 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

8 / 20

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

9 / 20

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

10 / 20

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

11 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

12 / 20

What word do we use to describe the pairs of chromosomes?

13 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

14 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

15 / 20

Where does translation take place?

16 / 20

The genetic code on RNA is read in a set of three bases called a...

17 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

18 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

19 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

20 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes...

 

Your score is

0%

Year 13

37

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

2 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

3 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

4 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

5 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

6 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

7 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

8 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

9 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

10 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

11 / 20

What the the tiny gaps called labelled X on the above diagram? ( Type your answer)

12 / 20

Name protein C in the above diagram.

13 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

14 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which two processes form nitrification?

15 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

16 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

17 / 20

Which of the following substances is NOT a co-enzyme?

18 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

19 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

20 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

Your score is

0%

4

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

2 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

3 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

4 / 20

In which stage of respiration is oxygen required?

5 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in animal cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Lactic Acid

6 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

7 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

8 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Oxaloacetate produced by cells exposed to IDH1 ?

9 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

10 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

11 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule Y during the conversion of triose phosphate to molecule X?

13 / 20

Name molecule Y

14 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

15 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

16 / 20

How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required to balance the number of carbon atoms to produce one glucose molecule?

17 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

18 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

19 / 20

Once light has hit structure D, and the electrons have left the chlorophyll, they can either be passed on to form F or follow path 'G'. What is path 'G'?

20 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

Your score is

0%

9

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

2 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

3 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

4 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

5 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

6 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

7 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

8 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

9 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

10 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

11 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

12 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

13 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

14 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

15 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

16 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

17 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

18 / 20

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

19 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

20 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

Your score is

0%

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following does NOT stop succession?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

3 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

5 / 20

Population growth can be exponential . How would we turn a curved population curve into a straight line graph?

6 / 20

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

7 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

8 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by a physical barrier between two populations such as a body of water?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

11 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

12 / 20

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

13 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

14 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

15 / 20

16 / 20

What is an autosome?

17 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

18 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

19 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

Your score is

0%

6

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

2 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

3 / 20

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

4 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

5 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

6 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

7 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

8 / 20

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

9 / 20

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

10 / 20

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

11 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

12 / 20

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

13 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

14 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

15 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

16 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

17 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

18 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

19 / 20

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

20 / 20

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

Your score is

0%