Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

75

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

2 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

3 / 20

At the sink, solutes are removed from the phloem, what effect does this have on water movement?

4 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

5 / 20

Which direction will the bubble move?

6 / 20

What happens to the heart during Diastole?

7 / 20

Why do the guard cells become 'curved' when they swell up?

8 / 20

Which letter is the tracheae?

9 / 20

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

10 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 1 and 2 .

11 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

12 / 20

Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?

13 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

14 / 20

Name this organelle.

15 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

16 / 20

What colour shows a positive result?

17 / 20

What is the next reagent to be added after this initial treatment?

18 / 20

Which polysaccharide do animal cells use as storage?

19 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

20 / 20

Which of the following is a type of disaccharide?

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39

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What type of reaction is involved in the breakdown of ATP?

2 / 20

The diagram shows a template strand of DNA. Which of the following is the order the first 5 new bases will be added (first in the sequence, would be first to be added)?

3 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only move in one direction along the template strand.

4 / 20

DNA and RNA are both polymers of which monomer?

5 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

6 / 20

Where do competitive inhibitors bind ?

7 / 20

Which bonds are disrupted by changes in pH?

8 / 20

In this reaction, what is the activation energy for the enzyme catalysed reaction?

9 / 20

Which word best describes the shape of the substrate?

10 / 20

What substance are enzymes made out of?

11 / 20

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by doing what?

12 / 20

More than two amino acids joined together is called what?

13 / 20

What is wrong with amino acid C?

14 / 20

What is the name of the NH2 group on an amino acid molecule?

15 / 20

What is the name of the COOH group on an amino acid molecule?

16 / 20

Fats that contain unsaturated fatty acids (compared to saturated) are more likely to have:

17 / 20

What subunits make up a single triglyceride?

18 / 20

It is highly branched, what type of glycosidic bond form the base of the branches?

19 / 20

What role does this polysaccharide have?

 

20 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

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26

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of cell travels to the site of infection, and secretes a chemical which kills infected cells?

2 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

3 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

4 / 20

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

5 / 20

Other than glucose, which substance can be absorbed from the ileum via co-transport?

6 / 20

True or false : Active transport can go down a concentration gradient, or up a concentration gradient.

7 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

8 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. which tube would you predict shows beetroot incubated at 20 0C?

9 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

10 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

11 / 20

Between which times does synthesis take place?

12 / 20

Which type of electron microscope show the density of the specimen as a dark patch?

13 / 20

Why might structure 'A' be useful in gut bacteria ?

14 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

15 / 20

Which of the following organelles has the SAME structure in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

16 / 20

Which of the following organelles has a different structure in prokaryotes when compared to eukaryotes.

17 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

18 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

19 / 20

Name this organelle.

20 / 20

Which out of the following cell types are eukaryotic?

A = Animal, B=Bacterial, P=Plants, F=Fungi

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9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

2 / 20

What piece of equipment is used to measure transpiration ?

3 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

4 / 20

Water molecules stick together due to what type of bond?

5 / 20

What is transpiration the movement of?

6 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

7 / 20

Which of the following IS NOT a way that smoking contributes to the risk of CVD?

8 / 20

What has happened at position B?

9 / 20

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm3 , and a HR of 52 bpm?

10 / 20

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

11 / 20

Is there a significant difference between risk of CVD smoking -19 cigarettes a day and more than 20 cigarettes a day?

12 / 20

Capillaries are made only out of one layer of cells called endothelium. Why is this?

13 / 20

Why do some xerophytes have hairs over the stomatal pits?

14 / 20

Which number represents the layer where gaseous exchange happens in plants?

15 / 20

Which letter is the tracheae?

16 / 20

Why might the FEV be lower for person B?

17 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

18 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If someone take 60 breaths over 5 minutes, and takes in 230 cm3, what is their PVR?

19 / 20

Which letter represents the diaphragm?

20 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

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9

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

2 / 20

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

3 / 20

The Amish in America are a closed community, which only reproduce with-in their own population. They are descended from 200 Swiss who migrated there. They have a much higher proportion of alleles which cause genetic disorders, rarely seen in the rest of the population. What is this an example of?

4 / 20

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

5 / 20

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

6 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

7 / 20

A sheep cheek cell which is not dividing has 54 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present during Meiotic Prophase 1 in the testes?

8 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

9 / 20

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

10 / 20

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

11 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

13 / 20

What bond is formed between the free RNA bases, once they have formed complementary base pairs?

14 / 20

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

15 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

16 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

17 / 20

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

18 / 20

What is the proteome of a cell?

19 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

20 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

2 / 20

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

3 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

4 / 20

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

5 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

6 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

7 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

8 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

9 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

10 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

11 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

12 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

13 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

14 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

15 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

16 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

17 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

18 / 20

Name substance A

19 / 20

Which chemical does 'E' represent?

20 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is 'Guano'?

2 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

3 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of inorganic ions from the soil by a plant.

4 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

5 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

6 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

7 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

8 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

9 / 20

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

10 / 20

As the ETC flows, what will happen to the pH of A?

11 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

12 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

13 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

14 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

15 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

16 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

17 / 20

Name molecule F

18 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

19 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

20 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

2 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

3 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

4 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

5 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

6 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

7 / 20

In order for an action potential to be generated in a Pacinian corpuscle, what must happen?

8 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

9 / 20

If the concentration of neurotransmitter secreted is very low, then threshold may not be reached. What term describes the process of increasing neurotransmitter release? either by multiple presynaptic neurones forming a single synapse or increasing the frequency of neurotransmitter release. Type your answer

 

10 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

11 / 20

What the the tiny gaps called labelled X on the above diagram? ( Type your answer)

12 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

13 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

14 / 20

Name stage 5 on the above diagram ( spell it carefully!)

15 / 20

Stimulation ( either by a generator potential in a receptor cell or a neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane) caused which type of channel to open?

16 / 20

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

17 / 20

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

18 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

19 / 20

Which of the following is true?

20 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

2 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

3 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

4 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

5 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

6 / 20

Why is random sampling used?

7 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

8 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

9 / 20

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

10 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by a physical barrier between two populations such as a body of water?

11 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

12 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

13 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

14 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

15 / 20

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

16 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

17 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

18 / 20

19 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

3 / 20

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

4 / 20

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

5 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

6 / 20

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

7 / 20

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

8 / 20

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

9 / 20

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

10 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

11 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

12 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

14 / 20

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

15 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

16 / 20

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

17 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

18 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

19 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

20 / 20

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

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