Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

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Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Hydrogen ionconcentration is used to calculate pH. Which of the following statements is true?

2 / 20

Which of the following molecules contain a phosphate group?

3 / 20

The average human makes and breaks-down its own body mass in ATP every day ( approximately 70 kg). Why is this?

4 / 20

What type of molecule is part C ?

5 / 20

In this experiment bacteria grown in N15, were then treansfered to N14, and allowed to divide for two generations ( tubeB). Describe what the cenrifuged DNA bands would look like.

6 / 20

Which molecules bind to the exposed bases when DNA becomes single stranded?

7 / 20

The two strands in DNA are 'antiparallel'. What does antiparallel mean?

8 / 20

Name the type of bond that forms when two DNA monomers attach.

9 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled B.

10 / 20

In this reaction, what is the activation energy for the enzyme catalysed reaction?

11 / 20

Glycine and Alanine are two common amino acids. How are their structures different to each other?

12 / 20

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

13 / 20

What is the name of the NH2 group on an amino acid molecule?

14 / 20

Triglycerides are good at storing energy. Which part of the molecule stores the most energy?

15 / 20

It is highly branched, what type of glycosidic bond form the base of the branches?

16 / 20

Name the polymer in the picture

17 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

18 / 20

Does this diagram show a glycosidic bond?

19 / 20

Are molecules A,B and C isomers of each other?

20 / 20

Which molecule is NOT glucose ?

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Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

50

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What word describes cells which contain pairs of chromosomes?

2 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

3 / 20

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

4 / 20

DNA is read in sets of three bases called what?

5 / 20

What is an allele?

6 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

7 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

8 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

9 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Pulmonary Vein?

10 / 20

What term describes the haem groups which contain iron?

11 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are the two agar blocks a similar surface area (within 5% difference)?

12 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

13 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

14 / 20

During co-transport of glucose in the ileum, active transport is needed to establish a concentration gradient of which substance?

15 / 20

Which of the following molecules can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Lipids

16 / 20

Name the pentose sugar found in DNA.

17 / 20

What has happened to the enzyme when it becomes denatured with a high temperature?

18 / 20

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

19 / 20

What subunits make up a single triglyceride?

20 / 20

What is the main structural difference between Amylose and Amylopectin?

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Biology Random Retrieval Y12

50

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

2 / 20

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

3 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

4 / 20

Which type of DNA is not circular?

5 / 20

What is translocation the movement of?

6 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

7 / 20

What is an Atheroma?

8 / 20

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria infecting the lungs, where amongst other effects it reduces tidal volume. What happens to the ventilation rate of sufferers?

9 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

10 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

11 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

Name structure B

13 / 20

Which out of the following cell types are eukaryotic?

A = Animal, B=Bacterial, P=Plants, F=Fungi

14 / 20

Water has a high specific heat capacity, why is this useful to organisms?

15 / 20

The average human makes and breaks-down its own body mass in ATP every day ( approximately 70 kg). Why is this?

16 / 20

Methanol is toxic. It binds to the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase . Ethanol is similar in structure to methanol. One treatment for Methanol poisoning is to drink a lot of ethanol. What type of inhibitor is methanol?

17 / 20

Which letter on the above graph is the ' Saturation' point?

18 / 20

What is the name of the bond that forms between two amino acids?

19 / 20

Which monomer is this polysaccharide made out of?

20 / 20

What would the products be from the hydrolysis of sucrose?

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34

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What charge will be on the hydrogen atoms in this molecule?

2 / 20

By which method does DNA replicate?

3 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only bind to double stranded DNA?

4 / 20

A single DNA strand has two ends - one called 5 prime (5') and one called 3 prime (3'). To which end of the new DNA strand does the enzyme bind in DNA replication?

5 / 20

How many bonds form between the Bases C and G when the base pair?

6 / 20

What base does the 'T' stand for?

7 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

8 / 20

Which line shows the rate when substrate is limited ?

9 / 20

Which letter on the above graph is the ' Saturation' point?

10 / 20

Antibodies are made out of 4 polypeptide chains, with no prosthetic group. How many levels of protein structure will they have?

11 / 20

What type of reaction could break apart the bonded amino acids?

12 / 20

Which of the following shows the correct structure of a peptide bond?

13 / 20

What does R stand for on an amino acid?

14 / 20

Which of the following terms best describes the phosphate part of a phospholipid?

15 / 20

What is the standard structure of a phospholipid?

16 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

17 / 20

This polysaccharide of glucose is branched. What is the advantage to the organism of branching ?

18 / 20

Name the polymer in the picture

19 / 20

Name the polymer in the picture.

20 / 20

Which diagram shows a glycosidic bond - A or B ?

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20

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Digested pathogen proteins can be displayed on the cell surface membrane of a phagocyte. What is this called?

Type your answer.

2 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

3 / 20

Which type of cell can engulf a pathogen?

4 / 20

A worm native to fresh water will die when placed in sea water. Why is this?

5 / 20

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

6 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from:

7 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

8 / 20

Which is the best explanation for the effect of ethanol on membrane permeability?

9 / 20

Name structure G.

10 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

11 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

12 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can only be used on non-living samples?

13 / 20

Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?

14 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

15 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

16 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

17 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

18 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

19 / 20

Name part C

20 / 20

What are the inner membrane folds called in this organelle?

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7

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

2 / 20

What piece of equipment is used to measure transpiration ?

3 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

4 / 20

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm3 , and a HR of 52 bpm?

5 / 20

Name the structures labelled B

6 / 20

This bar chart shows the risk of CVD with differing amounts of cigarettes smoked per day. Is there a significant difference in risk between smoking no cigarettes, and smoking 1 - 19 cigarettes a day?

7 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

8 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

9 / 20

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

10 / 20

Why do the guard cells become 'curved' when they swell up?

11 / 20

Emphysema is caused by what?

12 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

13 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If the breathing rate is 7, and the PVR is 1.4 dm3 min -1, what is the tidal volume?

14 / 20

What does Pulmonary Ventilation Rate (PVR) mean?

15 / 20

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

16 / 20

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

17 / 20

Which of the following is the correct sequence for inhalation?

18 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

19 / 20

Which two letters would be held open by C shaped cartilage rings?

20 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

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3

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

2 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

3 / 20

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

4 / 20

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

5 / 20

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

6 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

7 / 20

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

8 / 20

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

9 / 20

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

10 / 20

What word do we use to describe the pairs of chromosomes?

11 / 20

What molecule is formed at the end of translation?

12 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

13 / 20

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

14 / 20

What does RNA stand for?

 

15 / 20

What word describes the fact there is more than one set of three bases for each amino acid?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does C represent?

17 / 20

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

18 / 20

How many chromosomes do most human cells contain?

19 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

20 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

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Biology

Biological Molecules

You will get to grips with the very basic molecules of life. Each quiz takes you through the structure of each monomer, the structural differences between them, and how they join together to become biological polymers.

We start with Carbohydrate Structure, looking first at the Monosaccharides;Alpha and Beta Glucose, and how through condensation reactions, they can be joined together by glycosidic bonds to make disaccharides. From here we test your knowledge of the structural differences, and resulting differences in the properties of the polysaccharides : Amylose, Amylo-pectin, Cellulose and Glycogen.

Lipid structure, and the structural differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is tested here along with Ester linkages ( or bonds).

Protein structure again starts with the monomers; Amino Acids. The quiz tests your knowledge of the carboxyl group and the amino group, and the differing R groups. It tests your ability to identify a peptide bond, and how the order of amino acids dictates the ensuing secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures of proteins.There are two quizzes on Enzymes, and what factors affect enzyme function In these quizzes you will apply your knowledge of protein structure and be able to interpret graphs.

The structure of DNA ( and its single stranded relative RNA) is also tested in this unit; looking at Nucleotide structure, and phosphodiester bonds. In this unit there is also a quiz looking at the fine detail of DNA replication; understanding the role of each enzyme, where it attaches, and which direction it moves in. You are also tested on the evidence of Semi Conservative Replication.

Lastly there is a quiz testing your understanding of the role of inorganic ions such as sodium and phosphate. Building up to  the structure and  role of ATP. The importance of water is the last little section in this quiz , finishing off knowledge which will support every aspect of your A Level understanding from now on.

Biological Molecules

Cells

In this unit of A Level Biology: Cells, we start by testing your knowledge of Eukaryotic Organelles. Extending on from the basics learnt at GCSE, this quiz expects you to be able to identify and give the detailed function from the familiar Nucleus, through to the newly introduced Golgi Body and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.

The next quiz then looks at Prokaryotic structure. Focusing predominantly on Bacteria, this quiz looks at the differences between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes; particularly looking at DNA and Binary Fission.

Your mathematical skill is tested in Magnification , with your ability to convert units, understand Order of Magnitude, and work out the magnification and Actual size of images shown. Following on from this, Microscopes and Fractionation tests your understanding of the difference between Scanning and Transmission Electron microscopes. It also, applies your knowledge of the technique of Cell fractionation, where centrifugation at different speeds is used to separate out organelles.

Eukaryotic Cell division is tested in the Mitosis quiz. Where you need to be able identify Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase. You also need to understand the role of Interphase in the Cell Cycle.

Two quizzes are dedicated to the Plasma Membrane. You will need to know the structure of the Phosopholipid Bilayer,and  how that relates to function. How different molecules can pass across the Membrane, is also tested and again links into other units further on in A Level Biology.

Lastly we look at the Immune response : both the cellular response via T cells, and the Humoral response via B cells. The role of antibodies is tested both with in the Immune Response, but also in a second quiz on Monoclonal Antibodies.

Cells

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment

In this unit we get our first taste of Physiology in A Level biology – and start to look at how the body functions and systems with-in organisms.

We pick up from GCSE looking at Surface Area to Volume ratio, and adaptations of this that allow organisms to survive; for example,  at different temperatures. Surface area also links into the gaseous exchange systems in humans, insects, fish and plants. Understanding of the human gaseous exchange system also requires understanding and interpreting data on diseases which affect it.

Mass Transport means the movement of substances around a multicellular organism. In many organisms this takes the form of a circulatory system. In this unit, we look at Haemoglobin, and  oxygen dissociation curves. You need to be able to describe the effect of partial pressure of oxygen on haemogoblin’s affinity for oxygen. You also need to be able to describe the Bohr effect, and apply your knowledge to what may be unfamiliar species such as lugworms.

In terms of gross anatomy, at A level several major arteries such as the aorta, pulmonary and renal arteries need to be identified, and more importantly the structural differences between arteries, veins and capillaries. The structures of the heart also need to be identified, all be it in much the same level as higher GCSE. The cardiac cycle is extended from GCSE, looking at interpreting pressure changes , and calculating cardiac output and stroke volume. Cardiovascular disease data must be interpreted, including; atheroma, and thrombus formation.

Mass transport in plants has two separate routes:transpiration for water via xylem, and mass flow for organic substances via phloem.  Once again, GCSE is extended to looking at cohesion -tension in the xylem, and translocation via mass flow hypothesis in plants. In the Mass Flow  Hypothesis, changes in water potential caused by the formation of soluble substances (like glucose) cause pressure changes, which push the solutes towards ‘sinks’ where the solute concentration is lowered.

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment

Genetic Variation and Information

In this unit, we start off with DNA and RNA as the genetic molecules from unit 1, this time  identifying differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA, and chromosome structure. Extending from GCSE, we look at protein synthesis and the process of  transcription. This is the use of RNA polymerase to make complementary pre-mRNA from a coding section of DNA. The pre-mRNA contains introns, which are then spliced out to form the shorter mRNA. Translation then occurs in the ribosome. Here, we meet a new clover shaped polynucleotide : transfer RNA. tRNA  has  anticodons on the bottom loop, complementary to the codons on the mRNA, and specific amino acids on the top. The ribosome has space for 3 tRNA.s to dock, and join together the amino acids to form a polypeptide.

Genetic variation can occur due to mutation or meiosis. A few simple mutations to the base sequence of DNA are discussed here ( there are more in Unit 8), along with independent segregation and ‘crossing over’ of chromatids in the first phases of meiosis. This genetic variation is then applied to Natural Selection. Students need to be able to differentiate between directional and stabilising selection.

Phylogenetic classification uses evolutionary origins as a way of grouping organisms into a hierarchy. The different organisms can be grouped by biochemical similarity . The most obvious of this is the sequence of DNA, which is obviously linked to the primary structure of key proteins.

In this unit, students are also expected to develop maths skills , including calculation of means and standard deviation, and understanding what standard deviation represents.  Although, standard deviation will not be need to be calculated in the AQA exam.

Genetic Variation & Information

The Transfer of Energy

Life depends on continuous transfers of energy.

In this unit we start with photosynthesis. Splitting it into the light dependent reactions (LDR), and the Light Independent reactions (LIR).

LDR take place in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplasts. Light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, and results in electron transfer, which in turn creates a proton gradient, and the enzyme ATP synthase to produce ATP.  The LDR also produces reduced NADP, which together with carbon dioxide enter the Calvin cycle and produce triose phosphate which can be converted to other organic molecules such as glucose. There are also three required practicals on the cross board CPAC linked to photosynthesis.

In aerobic respiration, the breakdown of glucose as a respiratory substrate starts with glycolysis in the cytoplasm, which then links to the mitochondria. Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, finishing off with the Electron Transport Chain producing ATP.

This unit extends to the transfer of energy between organisms, as Net Primary Productivity (NPP) . this is Gross Primary Productivity ( GPP) minus respiratory losses. This extends to animals ( consumers) when N ( Net production) is equal to chemical energy ingested, minus losses in faeces, urine and respiration. Farming practices are designed to make these transfers most efficient.

Finally, nutrients alo cycle through the ecosystem, and at A Level biology , these focus on the Nitrogen cycle and the Phosphorus cycle. This is extended to A level by the role of saprobionts and mycorrhizae.

The Transfer of Energy

Responding to Change

A stimulus is a change in the internal or external environment, which can be detected by a receptor, and an effect brought about by an effector. In this unit, we look at how different organisms detect and coordinate these responses.

Plants respond to stimuli via growth factors. At A Level, this is based around Indole Acetic Acid (IAA). the responses are slow, growth responses called tropisms. There have been many experiments on plant responses, and some of these are tested in here.

Animals ( such as many invertebrates) can have simple responses to stimuli that can enable a motile organism, to move to a favourable environment. These are either taxes , which are directional responses, or kineses, which are non-directional responses.

Nervous coordination includes the establishment and maintenance of a negative resting potential,and the generation of an action potential due to changes in membrane permeability to sodium and potassium ions. Once again, we extend GCSE basic understanding of synapses, to consider summation and inhibition too. Receptors are cells that detect specific stimuli, and cause the establishment of  a generator potential. In a pacinian corpuscle, the stimulus is pressure.  We also use the examples of rod and cone cells as receptors that detect light.

Skeletal muscle is an effector. The arrival of an action potential causes biochemical changes which results in cycles of actinomyosin bridge breaking and  formation.

Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment. Specifically we look at the control of blood glucose via insulin and glucagon. Also the action of adrenaline, and the second messenger model. We also look specifically at the control of water potential of the blood via ADH on the kidney.

Responding to Change

Populations, Evolutions and Genetics

All individuals of a population show variation in their phenotype, caused by the environment and genetics. In this unit, we look at mendelian ratios derived from monohybrid and dihybrid crosses. We also look at sex linkage, autosomal linkage and epistasis.

The Hardy Weinberg equation is a quadratic equation which allows us to calculate allele frequency in a population. The Hardy Weinberg equation assumes a population to be large, with random mating, and no immigration, no emigration, no mutation . To use the Hardy Weinberg, you must first identify what is the recessive allele, and then if the information on that allele is about whole organisms ( in which case use ‘q2’) or number of alleles in which case use ‘q’. Variations due to meiosis and mutation, and ensuing differential reproductive success give rise to new alleles and changes in allele frequency.

This can lead to evolution of new species, called speciation. Speciation can be either allopatric ( geographically separated) or sympatric (reproductively isolated without geographical barriers). This unit also looks at the study of populations in ecosystems. Here we recap terms such as ‘community’ and ‘niche’ and interspecific and intraspecific speciation.

Techniques such as random sampling, belt transects and mark-release-recapture are also covered here. Succession is the process where an ecosystem changes overtime ( this is not the same process as evolution). Pioneer species ( often lichen) are the first species to grow on bare rock, creating a thin soil, so bigger species are then able to take root. Lastly conservation is also covered in this unit.

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics

Control of Expression

Although all cells within an organism carry the same genetic code, different parts of the code can be ‘turned on’ , and used by different cells. This ‘turning on’ of genes is called gene expression. It is the different expression of genes which allows cells to have different features and functions.

Mutations are re-visited in this unit ( also in unit 4) , but extended to look at inversion, duplication and translocation of bases. Some mutations will lead to a change in the entire reading frame after that point, and this is called a frame shift. Mutation of tumour suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes can lead to cancer.

Cancer can also be influenced by epigenetics. Epigenetics is the marking of DNA or histone proteins, which affects the likelihood of that section of DNA being expressed or not. Epigenetic control  is perhaps  the biggest discovery this century in the field of  Biology. The marks are in the form of acetylation or methylation, and have been found to have strong roles in disease states such as cancer.

Another recent discovery in the control of expression has been the discovery of Small Interfering RNAs ( siRNA) . Here RNAs bind to mRNA’s causing them to be degraded by enzymes, and therefore preventing that mRNA from being translated.

Gene technologies are ever advancing, and this is taken into account with the acknowledgement that sequencing methods for example are constantly improving . Recombinant DNA technologies are revisited from GCSE, and advanced by looking at the Polymerase Chain Reaction ( PCR) as a method of in vitro DNA replication. The use of DNA probes and hybridisation, along with genetic finger-printing are also included in this section.

Control of Expression

U8T5 – Recombinant DNA Technology

56

Recombinant DNA Technology

1 / 25

Sometimes when trying to find a gene which important in a particular disease, it is useful to find out what genes the diseased cells have used (expressed) by extracting mRNA rather than DNA. However, mRNA cannot be used in genetic modifications. What do we need to change it into to be able to use it?

2 / 25

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 25

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

4 / 25

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

5 / 25

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

6 / 25

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

7 / 25

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

8 / 25

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

9 / 25

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

10 / 25

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

11 / 25

What bond does DNA ligase create?

12 / 25

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

13 / 25

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

14 / 25

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

15 / 25

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

16 / 25

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

17 / 25

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

18 / 25

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

19 / 25

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

20 / 25

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

21 / 25

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

22 / 25

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

23 / 25

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

24 / 25

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

25 / 25

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

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U8T4 – Stem Cells, Epigenetics and siRNA

88

Stem Cells, Epigenetics and siRNA

1 / 25

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

2 / 25

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

3 / 25

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

4 / 25

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

5 / 25

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

6 / 25

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

7 / 25

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

8 / 25

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

9 / 25

What are iPS cells?

10 / 25

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

11 / 25

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

12 / 25

What is an advantage of using iPS cells to treat degenerative disorders, instead of embryonic stem cells?

13 / 25

What is 'Epigenetics'?

14 / 25

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

15 / 25

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

16 / 25

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

17 / 25

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

18 / 25

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

19 / 25

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

20 / 25

What causes epigenetic markers to be added or removed from DNA?

21 / 25

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

22 / 25

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

23 / 25

Which molecule does the SIRNA / protein complex (RISC) bind to?

24 / 25

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

25 / 25

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

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U8T3 – Protein Synthesis Recap and Transcription Factors

102

Protein Synthesis Recap and Transcription Factors

1 / 24

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

2 / 24

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

3 / 24

Which molecule is created during transcription?

4 / 24

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

5 / 24

What is the removal of introns called?

6 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

7 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

8 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

9 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

11 / 24

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

12 / 24

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

13 / 24

Where are transcription factors often stored?

14 / 24

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

15 / 24

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

16 / 24

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

17 / 24

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

18 / 24

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

19 / 24

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

20 / 24

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

21 / 24

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

22 / 24

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

23 / 24

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

24 / 24

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

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U8T2 – Mutations and Cancer

95

Mutations and Cancer

1 / 25

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

2 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

3 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

4 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

5 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred?

6 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

7 / 25

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

8 / 25

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

9 / 25

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

10 / 25

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

11 / 25

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

12 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

14 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

15 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

16 / 25

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

17 / 25

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

18 / 25

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

19 / 25

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

20 / 25

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

21 / 25

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

22 / 25

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

23 / 25

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

24 / 25

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

25 / 25

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

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U8T1 – Nucleic Acids Recap from Year 1

79

Nucleic Acids Recap from Year 1

1 / 25

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

2 / 25

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

3 / 25

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

4 / 25

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

5 / 25

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

6 / 25

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

7 / 25

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

8 / 25

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

9 / 25

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

10 / 25

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

11 / 25

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

12 / 25

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

13 / 25

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

14 / 25

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

15 / 25

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

16 / 25

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

17 / 25

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

18 / 25

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

19 / 25

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

20 / 25

Which type of DNA is not circular?

21 / 25

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

22 / 25

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

23 / 25

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

24 / 25

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

25 / 25

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

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U7T6 – Succession

25

Succession

1 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

2 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

3 / 20

True or false : Succession involves only the change of biotic factors ( Not abiotic).

4 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

5 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

6 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

7 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

8 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

9 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

10 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

11 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

12 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

13 / 20

What is humus?

14 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

15 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

16 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

17 / 20

What is it called when succession is stopped artificially?

18 / 20

What is the native climax community in the UK?

19 / 20

Which of the following does NOT stop succession?

20 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

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