Category: Biology

U5T2 – The Light Independent Reactions of Photosynthesis

The Light Independent Reactions of Photosynthesis

1 / 20

Where in a chloroplast do the Light Independent Reactions ( LIRs) occur? ( watch your spelling!)

2 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

NADH and ATP

NADPH and ATP

Reduced NAD and ATP

3 / 20

Name substance A

Glycerate-bisphosphate

Triose-bisphosphate

Ribulose-bisphosphate

4 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in substance A?

5 / 20

Name substance D

Carbon Dioxide

Ribulose bisphosphate

Hexose sugar

6 / 20

Name substance B

Glycerate-3-Phosphate

Glycerate-6-Phosphate

Glycerate-bisphosphate

7 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

8 / 20

Name molecule F

ATP

NADPH

CO₂

9 / 20

Name the enzyme that converts A to B.

Glycisco

Glycerate Carboxylase

Rubisco

10 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

Oxidises

Reduces

Phosphorylates

11 / 20

Name substance C

Pentose Phosphate

Hexose Phosphate

Triose Phophate

12 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

13 / 20

Which substance goes on to create other organic molecules?

14 / 20

How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required to balance the number of carbon atoms to produce one glucose molecule?

15 / 20

How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

16 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

17 / 20

If six molecules of molecule C are produced, how many will be regenerated into substance A?

18 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are required to generate TWO molecules of glucose ?

19 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

NADP+

NADPH

ADP

20 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U5T1 – The Light Dependent Reactions of Photosynthesis

131

The Light Dependent Reactions of Photosynthesis

1 / 20

Name structure B

2 / 20

Name structure E

3 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

4 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

5 / 20

What molecule is represented by 'B' on the diagram?

Chlorophyll

Proteins

NADP

6 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

Plasma

Thylakoid

Inner

7 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

Animated

Excited

Activated

8 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

Oxidised

Reduced

Denatured

9 / 20

What type of molecule will pick up the 'high energy' electrons in PSII?

Primary Electron Acceptor

Primary Electron Donor

Primary Protein

10 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

11 / 20

The splitting of water at PSII creates molecules A & B, what do A and B represent?

2H⁺ & 2 e^-

2H⁺ & O₂

2H⁺ & 1/2 O₂

12 / 20

Where does the energy needed for the splitting of water originate?

ATP

heat

light

13 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

Photosystems

ATP Synthase

Electron Carriers

14 / 20

What is structure D?

PS1

PS2

PS3

15 / 20

Once light has hit structure D, and the electrons have left the chlorophyll, they can either be passed on to form F or follow path 'G'. What is path 'G'?

Cyclic photophosphorylation

Non-Cyclic Phosphorylation

16 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

More ATP is synthesised

More reduced NADP is synthesised

More Glucose is synthesised

17 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

NADP Synthase

cAMP Synthase

ATP Synthase

18 / 20

Which chemical does 'E' represent?

NAD

NADP

NADPH

19 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

NAD

NADP

NADPH

20 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U4T5 – Natural Selection

121

Natural Selection

1 / 19

How do new alleles occur in a population?

Crossing Over

Independent Assortment

Mutation

2 / 19

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

Artificial Selection

Natural Selection

Speciation

3 / 19

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

Some individuals within a population are more likely to reproduce than others.

Different species have different reproductive success.

More organisms reproduce successfully over time.

4 / 19

Why do most mutations cause a decrease in reproductive success?

Because a mutation often causes a non-functional protein in the affected organism, leading to a loss of function in certain tissues or organs.

Because the mutation will reduce the production of gametes.

Because the mutation means only infertile offspring are produced.

5 / 19

A mutation in a population of bed bugs in New York City caused the bedbugs to have a thicker, waxier exoskeleton. Why will the allele for thicker , waxier exoskeleton in bed bugs increase in the population?

The thicker exoskeleton makes it easier to lay eggs. More eggs are laid, so more bed bugs with thicker exoskeleton.

The thicker exoskeleton means that the insecticide used to kill them is no longer effective. The thicker exoskeletal bed bugs are more likely to reproduce and pass on the new allele.

The waxy exoskeleton is waterproof, so they are less likely to drown.

6 / 19

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

Physiological

Anatomical

Behavioural

7 / 19

The Western Corn Rootworm has developed resistance to a protein pesticide found in transgenic crops. The protein no longer damages the digestive tract of the insect.

Physiological

Anatomical

Behavioural

8 / 19

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

Physiological

Anatomical

Behavioural

9 / 19

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

Physiological

Anatomical

Behavioural

10 / 19

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

Directional

Stabilising

Convergent

11 / 19

Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

Human Birth Weight

Length of a giraffe's neck.

Best camouflaged colour of mouse's coat in woodland.

12 / 19

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

Length of a giraffe's neck.

Thickness of blubber in a weddel seal.

Human Birth Weight.

13 / 19

What type of selection is resistance to antibiotics by bacteria?

Directional

Stabilising

Convergent

14 / 19

Which of the following has contributed to the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

Prescription of anibiotics for serious bacterial infections only.

Patients completing the full course of antibiotics.

Over prescription of antibiotics.

15 / 19

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

Independent Assortment

Speciation

Mutation

16 / 19

The development of antibiotic resistance is an example of what type of selection?

Natural Selection

Artificial Selection

Stabilising Selection

17 / 19

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

Measuring the size of bacterial colonies.

Measuring the Inhibition Zone.

Monoclonal Antibodies.

18 / 19

True or false : The most effective antibiotic for E Coli O121 will also be the most effective antibiotic for EColi K1.

TRUE

FALSE

19 / 19

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

Septic Technique

Aseptic Technique

Antibiotic Technique

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U4T4 – Mutation and Genetic Diversity

193

Mutation and Genetic Diversity

1 / 21

What is a gene mutation?

The addition of a marker molecule onto the DNA

A chemical which binds to DNA

A change in the DNA base sequence

2 / 21

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

Addition

Substitution

Deletion

3 / 21

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACCTTGG

Addition

Substitution

Deletion

4 / 21

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

Addition

Substitution

Deletion

5 / 21

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

Addition

Substitution

Deletion

6 / 21

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

The genetic code is universal

The genetic code is degenerate

DNA is double stranded

7 / 21

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

They add or remove an amino acid.

They alter both strands of the double helix.

They cause a frame-shift in the triplet code.

8 / 21

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

Ultra Violet Radiation

Infra Red Radiation

Visible Light

9 / 21

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

Bacteria

Fungus

Viruses

10 / 21

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

They always cause a mutation.

They increase the probability of a mutation.

They are only harmful in large amounts.

11 / 21

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

Cystic Fibrosis

Down's Syndrome

Huntington's

12 / 21

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

The number of different versions of alleles within a species.

The number of different breeds with-in a species.

The number of different species.

13 / 21

Which of the following will reduce genetic diversity in a population?

Mutation

Genetic Bottleneck

Migration

14 / 21

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

They are increased, because of an increase in mutations.

They are reduced, because those wiped out alleles give a disadvantage to the organism.

They are reduced due to massive population reduction, but which alleles are removed is due to chance.

15 / 21

Which is an example of a Genetic Bottleneck?

Bounty hunters killing Florida Panthers almost to extinction, for a reward in the early 1900's.

A domesticated dog escaping, and breeding with wild dogs.

Two separated populations interbreeding.

16 / 21

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

There is the same number of different of alleles.

There are fewer alleles in the surviving population.

There are more alleles in the surviving population

17 / 21

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

TRUE

FALSE

18 / 21

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

TRUE

FALSE

19 / 21

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

Speciation

Genetic Bottleneck.

Founder Effect

20 / 21

Why do the modern day population of Tristan De Cunha has a much higher than average incidence of the genetic disorder Retinitis Pigmentosa?

Retinitis Pigmentosa has less effect on eye sight in the bright sunshine.

Everyone without Retinitis Pigmentosa left the island.

One of the original population carried the allele, and all descendants are therefore more likely to carry the rare allele.

21 / 21

The Amish in America are a closed community, which only reproduce with-in their own population. They are descended from 200 Swiss who migrated there. They have a much higher proportion of alleles which cause genetic disorders, rarely seen in the rest of the population. What is this an example of?

Speciation

Genetic Bottleneck

Founder Effect

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U2T5 – Mitosis

372

Mitosis

1 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

2 / 20

What happens in G1 phase?

DNA is replicated

Organelles are replicated

Proteins are Replicated

3 / 20

What happens in S phase?

DNA is replicated

Organelles are replicated

Proteins are Replicated

4 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

DNA is replicated

Organelles are replicated

Proteins are Replicated

5 / 20

What term is given to describe G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase combined? ( Spell it correctly)

6 / 20

How long is one complete cell cycle on this graph?

12 hours

6 hours

24 hours

7 / 20

Between which times does synthesis take place?

8-12 hours

6 - 12 hours

6 - 8 hours

8 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

6 - 12 hours

0-12 hours

At hour 12

9 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

11 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

Metaphase

Prophase

Anaphase

12 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

Metaphase

Prophase

Anaphase

13 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

Metaphase

Prophase

Anaphase

14 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

D, C, A, B, E

D, C, E, B, A

D, C, B, E, A

15 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

16 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

Pallisade cells in a leaf

Root Tips

Phloem cells in the stem

17 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

Heat in boiling water for 5 minutes

Soak in isotonic solution for 30 minutes

Heat in HCl for 5 minutes

18 / 20

To calculate the 'Mitotic Index' you need to stain your root tip cells. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate stain to view Chromosomes with?

Eosin

Toluidine Blue

Aceto-Orcein

19 / 20

In a garlic root tip squash, a student observed 124 cells, of which 19 has visible chromosomes. What was the mitotic index for that tissue?

0.18

20 / 20

In a suspected lung cancer tissue sample, a histopathologist observed 19 cells out of a total of 320 in mitosis. The average mitotic index for healthy human lung tissue is 0.04. Is the patient likely to have cancer or not?

Likely to have Cancer

Not likely to have cancer

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U4T2 – Protein Synthesis

330

Protein Synthesis

1 / 30

DNA is read in sets of three bases called what?

Triplets

Codons

Anticodons

2 / 30

What word describes the fact there is more than one set of three bases for each amino acid?

Polypeptide

Polygenic

Degenerate

3 / 30

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

TRUE

FALSE

4 / 30

What does RNA stand for?

Ribulose Nucleic Acid

Ribo Nucleic Acid

Rhino Nucleic Acid

5 / 30

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

DNA is made of of nucleotides, RNA is made out of amino acids.

DNA uses the genetic code, RNA uses sequences of amino acids.

DNA is double stranded, RNA is single stranded.

6 / 30

Which is the true statement about DNA compared to RNA?

They are both double stranded.

They both use the same nucleotides

They are both made out of nucleotides, but RNA contains Uracil not Thymine.

7 / 30

The genetic code on RNA is read in a set of three bases called a...

Triplets

Codons

Anticodons

8 / 30

What does the 'm' stand for in mRNA?

Migrating

Multiple

Messenger

9 / 30

What is transcription?

Replicating DNA

Turning DNA into pre - mRNA

Turning pre-mRNA into mRNA

10 / 30

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

RNA Polymerase

DNA Polymerase

Helicase

11 / 30

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

Phospho-diester bonds

Peptide bonds

Hydrogen bonds

12 / 30

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

To a double stranded section of DNA.

To the start of a gene (called a promoter).

At the start of the chromosome.

13 / 30

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

Negative charges on the phosphate group.

Partial charges on the organic base.

OH groups on the deoxyribose.

14 / 30

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

Complementary Base Pairing

Conservative Base Pairing

Friendly Base Pairing

15 / 30

What is the base-pairing pattern in DNA to RNA?

A-T, C-G

A-C, U-G

A-U, C-G

16 / 30

What bond is formed between the free RNA bases, once they have formed complementary base pairs?

Ester Linkage

Hydrogen Bond

Phospho- Di Ester Bond

17 / 30

What molecule is made in eukaryotic transcription?

mRNA

pre-mRNA

tRNA

18 / 30

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

mRNA

pre-mRNA

tRNA

19 / 30

What stops the RNA polymerase?

A STOP codon

The gene ends, and non coding DNA is copied, but cut out later.

The enzyme runs out of ATP.

20 / 30

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

Introns

Exons

Start Codons

21 / 30

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

Translating

Ligating

Splicing

22 / 30

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

Cytoplasm

Nucleus

Ribosome

23 / 30

What is translation?

DNA into pre-mRNA

pre-mRNA into mRNA

mRNA into amino acid sequence

24 / 30

Where does translation take place?

Cytoplasm

Nucleus

Ribosome

25 / 30

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

Triplets

Codons

Anticodons

26 / 30

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

A specific amino acid

A specific base

A specific fatty acid

27 / 30

How many tRNA molecules can fit into a ribosome at any time?

28 / 30

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

29 / 30

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

Glycosidic

Phospho-diester

Peptide

30 / 30

What molecule is formed at the end of translation?

Polysaccharide

Mature RNA

Polypeptide

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U4T1 – Genes and Chromosomes

332

Genes and Chromosomes

1 / 25

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are an homologous pair?

TRUE

FALSE

2 / 25

Eukaryotic DNA is stored, wrapped around which type of protein?

Centriole

Chromosome

Centrosome

Histone

3 / 25

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

Circular

Linear

Double Stranded

Double helix

4 / 25

Which type of DNA is not circular?

Mitochondrial

Plant Nuclear

Chloroplast

Bacterial

5 / 25

Describe how prokaryotic DNA is stored

Wound around histone proteins

As pairs of linear chromosomes

Supercoiled

Uncoiled

6 / 25

What is a gene?

A section of DNA

A section of DNA which codes for a protein

A section of DNA which codes for a functional RNA

A section of DNA which codes for a protein or a functional RNA.

7 / 25

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

Polysaccharide

Ribosomal RNA

tRNA

Polypeptide

8 / 25

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

Degenerate

Universal

Non-Overlapping

Interrupted

9 / 25

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

Introns

Exons

Variable Number Tandem Repeats

Promoter Sequences

10 / 25

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

Introns

Exons

Variable Number Tandem Repeats

Promoter Sequences

11 / 25

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

Locus

Allele

Centromere

Centriole

12 / 25

What is an allele?

A similar gene

A different gene

A different form of the same gene

A cluster of genes

13 / 25

What is the genome of a cell?

All the genes which code for a protein in cell.

All the genes which code for a protein or a functional RNA in a cell.

All the genetic material in exons, in a cell.

All the genetic information, both introns, exons and non-coding DNA in a cell.

14 / 25

What is the proteome of a cell?

Only those proteins which are expressed (made) by a tissue.

The entire set of proteins that are expressed, or could be expressed by an organism.

Those proteins which could be expressed, but aren't.

The proteins which make up the physical structure of a cell.

15 / 25

How many chromosomes do most human cells contain?

16 / 25

What is an 'homologous chromosome'?

The same chromosome ( same number e.g. 21) but possibly with different alleles

An identical copy of a chromosome, with identical alleles.

When two alleles are the same, on a pair of chromosomes.

Any two chromosomes.

17 / 25

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

The same chromosome ( same number e.g. 21) but possibly with different alleles. Can be linear, or X shaped.

An identical copy of a chromosome, with identical alleles. Joined by the centromere to form a X shape.

A pair of linear, single chromosomes.

Two X sex- chromosomes (XX) .

18 / 25

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

Always homozygous ( two copies of the same form).

Always the same allele, but at different Loci.

Always heterozygous ( two copies but with different alleles).

Always at the same locus, but could be different alleles.

19 / 25

In an homologous pair of chromosomes...

Both chromosomes are from the mother.

Both chromosomes are from the father.

One of the pair came from the mother, and the other came from the father.

he chromosomes are clones of each other.

20 / 25

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are not an homologous pair?

TRUE

FALSE

21 / 25

On this diagram, what does A represent?

Sister Chromatids

Homologous Chromosomes

Sex Chromosomes

22 / 25

On this diagram, what does B represent?

Sister Chromatids

Homologous Chromosomes

Loci

23 / 25

On this diagram, what does C represent?

Loci

Homologous Chromosomes

Centromeres

24 / 25

On this diagram, what does D represent?

Locus

Homologous Chromosomes

Centromeres

25 / 25

What do H and h represent?

Different genes

Different Alleles

Different loci

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U3T6 – Mass Transport in Plants

205

Mass Transport in Plants

1 / 25

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

Xylem

Phloem

2 / 25

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

Xylem

Phloem

3 / 25

Xylem or Phloem ? - No end plates on these cells

Xylem

Phloem

4 / 25

What is transpiration the movement of?

Water, with dissolved organic substances.

Pure water.

Water with dissolved mineral ions.

5 / 25

Through which part does the water evaporate out of the leaf?

Guard Cells

Stomata

Lower Epidermis Cells

6 / 25

The evaporation of water molecules out of the leaf, 'pulls' the water molecules behind up. What is this 'pull' called ?

Cohesion

Tension

Mass Flow

7 / 25

Water molecules stick together due to what type of bond?

Oxide Bonds

Hydroxide Bonds

Hydrogen Bonds

8 / 25

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

Cohesion

Tension

Mass Flow

9 / 25

Which of the following would decrease the rate of transpiration?

High Humidity

High Light Intensity

High Temperature

10 / 25

How does an increase in wind speed, increase the rate of transpiration?

Increases or maintains the water potential gradient between the air inside the leaf, and the air outside.

Increase in wind is detected by small hairs on the leaves, which open the stomata.

Decreases the water potential gradient between the air inside the leaf, and the air outside.

11 / 25

What piece of equipment is used to measure transpiration ?

Transpirometer

Potometer

Respirometer

12 / 25

Which direction will the bubble move?

Towards the beaker

Towards the plant

13 / 25

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

Getting the bubble into the tube

Measuring the volume of water

Resetting the bubble to the start position

14 / 25

How do you calculate the rate of water transpired by the plant?

Measure the drop in water from the beaker then divide by time.

Measure the drop in water from the reservoir above the tap.

Measure the radius of the capillary tube, then using the cross section area, multiply by the distance moved by the bubble and divide by time.

15 / 25

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

Low light Intensity

Low Humidity

High wind speed

16 / 25

What is translocation the movement of?

Water, with mineral ions.

Pure sucrose.

Organic substances dissolved in water.

17 / 25

In terms of translocation, what is an 'assimilate'?

An estimation of the mass of glucose your plant will use.

Any organic substance that becomes part of the plant's cells. E.g Amino Acids, Glucose etc.

The mass of amino acids produced by converting glucose.

18 / 25

Which of the following is an example of a 'source' ?

A photosynthesising leaf.

A Respiring meristem.

A storage tuber in the root.

19 / 25

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

A photosynthesising leaf.

A Respiring meristem.

A root hair cell absorbing nitrate ions.

20 / 25

The Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best explanation for translocation in plants. What does it suggest happens at 'sources'?

Substances move by diffusion from a high concentration where they are made, to a lower concentration in the phloem.

Substances are actively transported out of the source cell into the phloem, reducing the water potential in the phloem.

Substances are stored, reducing the concentration in the source, creating a concentration gradient.

21 / 25

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

Water will move into the source cells via osmosis, from the phloem. Reducing the pressure in the phloem.

The same amount of water will move in as move out as it is now isotonic.

Water will move into the phloem via osmosis, increasing the pressure.

22 / 25

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

They are pumped back up phloem going the other way.

They are more dense so sink down, and gather in cells on the lower surface.

Enzymes break them down or join them together as insoluble storage.

23 / 25

At the sink, solutes are removed from the phloem, what effect does this have on water movement?

The water potential is increased, so water moves out of the phloem reducing pressure.

The water potential is decreased, so water moves into the phloem increasing pressure.

The water potential remains isotonic, as other solutes are pumped in to replace those lost.

24 / 25

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

Removal of xylem on a tree trunk ( ringing) causes a bulge above it, which has more sucrose.

Sieve plates cause a barrier to the pressure gradient in mass flow and would slow the flow.

Radioactive CO2 shows movement from leaf to the roots.

25 / 25

If a small tube is inserted into the phloem through the bark of a tree, sap containing sucrose leaks out. Where on the tree will the most sap leak from due to the highest hydrostatic pressure?

Top of the branch, nearest the leaves.

Middle of the tree, near the top of the trunk.

Bottom of the trunk.

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U3T5 – Heart Structure and Heart Disease

263

Heart Structure and Heart Disease

1 / 25

Name the structures labelled A

Atrioventricular Valve

Semi - Lunar Valve

Bicuspid Valve

2 / 25

Name the structures labelled B

Atrioventricular Valve

Semi - Lunar Valve

Bicuspid Valve

3 / 25

When will the valves close?

When the pressure is lower in front of the valve and higher behind it.

When the pressure is higher in front of the valve, and lower behind it.

When the pressure is equal.

4 / 25

One of the phases of the cardiac cycle is called Atrial Systole. During Atrial Systole, what is happening in the heart during this phase?

The atria contract, increasing the pressure, and the Atrioventricular valve is closed.

The atria contract, reducing the pressure, and the Atrioventricular valve is closed.

The atria contract, increasing the pressure, and the Atrioventricular valve is open.

5 / 25

What happens to the heart during Diastole?

Atrial and Ventricular walls are relaxed, the Atrioventricular valve is closed.

Atrial and Ventricular walls are relaxed, and the Atrioventricular valve is open.

Atrial wall is relaxed, but the ventricular wall is contracted. The Atrioventricular valve is open.

6 / 25

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

Atrial wall is relaxed, but the ventricular wall is contracted. The Atrioventricular valve is closed, but the Semi Lunar valve is open.

Atrial wall is relaxed, but the ventricular wall is contracted. The Atrioventricular valve is open, but the Semi Lunar valves are closed.

Atrial and ventricular walls are contracted, and the Atrioventricular valve is closed. The Semi Lunar valves are open.

7 / 25

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm³ , and a HR of 52 bpm?

4.94 dm³ hr^-1

4940 dm³ min^-1

4.94 dm³ min^-1

8 / 25

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm³ min^-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

50 dm³

50 cm³

500 cm³

9 / 25

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

Aorta

Atrium

Ventricle

10 / 25

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

Aorta

Atrium

Ventricle

11 / 25

What has happened at position A?

The Atrioventricular valves open.

The Atrioventricular valves close.

The Semi- Lunar valves open.

12 / 25

What has happened at position B?

The Atrioventricular valves open.

The Semi- Lunar valves close.

The Semi- Lunar valves open.

13 / 25

What has happened at position C?

The Atrioventricular valves open.

The Atrioventricular valves close.

The Semi- Lunar valves open.

14 / 25

What has happened at position D?

The Atrioventricular valves open.

The Atrioventricular valves close.

The Semi- Lunar valves open.

15 / 25

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

Because the heart is in diastole.

Because the pressure is higher in the ventricle than the atrium.

Because the pressure has become higher in the atria than the ventricle.

16 / 25

What is Cardiovascular Disease?

The same as CHD : when the arteries of the heart become damaged, often associated with a build up of fatty deposits.

When the arteries of the brain become damaged, often associated with a build up of fatty deposits.

When any blood vessels, including those of the heart, brain and lungs become damaged, often associated with a build up of fatty deposits.

17 / 25

What is an Atheroma?

A build up of plaque in the lumen of arterioles and arteries.

A build up of plaque under the endothelial lining of arteries and arterioles.

A blood clot that forms in the lumen when the lining of an artery becomes damaged.

18 / 25

What is a Thrombosis?

A blood clot that forms in the lumen when the lining of an artery becomes damaged.

A blood clot that forms under the endothelium when an artery becomes damaged.

Swelling caused by highblood pressure.

19 / 25

Which of the following IS NOT a way that smoking contributes to the risk of CVD?

Carbon Monoxide and Nicotine both cause an increase in blood pressure, which increases the risk of an Atheroma forming.

Carbon Monoxide reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin, this increases heart rate and reduces oxygen available to the heart tissues.

Tar sticks to the inside of arteries and arteriole lumen, restricting blood flow, increasing the risk of a thrombus forming.

20 / 25

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

Salt reduces the water potential of the blood, so water moves out of the endothelium cells via osmosis, causing them to shrivel.

Salt reduces the water potential of the blood, causing water to move in from surrounding tissues via osmosis, leading to an increase in blood pressure, and development of an atheroma.

Salt reduces the water potential of your blood, causing the red blood cells to crenate and form blood clots.

21 / 25

Does this bar cart show a correlation between number of cigarettes smoked, and the risk of CVD?

Yes

22 / 25

This bar chart shows the risk of CVD with differing amounts of cigarettes smoked per day. Is there a significant difference in risk between smoking no cigarettes, and smoking 1 - 19 cigarettes a day?

Yes

23 / 25

Is there a significant difference between risk of CVD smoking -19 cigarettes a day and more than 20 cigarettes a day?

Yes

24 / 25

Does this chart show a causal relationship between Risk of CVD and smoking?

Yes

25 / 25

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

Because P only = 0.006 for the linear trend.

Because the 95% Confidence Intervals overlap for two of the results.

Because CVD may have been caused by other things such as diet, exercise , age etc.

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

U3T4 – Haemoglobin and Circulatory System

317

Haemoglobin and Circulatory System

1 / 25

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

2 / 25

Why is haemoglobin described as being 'Quaternary'?

Because it contains 4 polypeptide chains.

Because it contains 4 haem groups.

Because it contains more than 1 polypeptide chain.

3 / 25

What term describes the haem groups which contain iron?

Co-factor

Prosthetic Group

Active Site

4 / 25

How many oxygen molecules can each haem group carry?

5 / 25

What unit do we use to measure the concentration of oxygen in the tissue?

Moles

Kilo Pascals

Percentage

6 / 25

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

Veins

Respiring Muscles

Percentage

7 / 25

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

Respiring tissues

Arteries

Alveoli

8 / 25

On the graph, which letter shows where it is hardest for oxygen to associate?

9 / 25

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

Neither

10 / 25

What is it called, when Carbon Dioxide causes the dissociation curve to shift?

Bear Effect

Bohr Effect

Bahrain Effect

11 / 25

During the Bohr Effect, what happens to the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?

Lowers the affinity

Increases the affinity

It does not affect the affinity

12 / 25

Why is it useful that the Bohr Effect reduces the percentage saturation of Haemoglobin with oxygen?

reduction in saturation also causes a reduction in partial pressure, so a concentration gradient is maintained.

The oxygen has unloaded from the haemoglobin, so it can be exhaled via the lungs.

The oxygen has unloaded from the haemoglobin, so it is available for aerobic respiration in the tissues

13 / 25

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for humming bird haemoglobin?

Same as human adult

14 / 25

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

Same as human adult

15 / 25

In which direction ( if any) , would the curve be for human foetal haemoglobin?

Same as human adult

16 / 25

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Vena Cava?

17 / 25

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Pulmonary Vein?

18 / 25

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

Myocardial Arteries

Coronary Arteries

Cardiac Arteries

19 / 25

What do we call the arteries which supply the kidneys?

Hepatic Arteries

Carotid Arteries

Renal Arteries

20 / 25

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

Artery

Vein

Aterioles

21 / 25

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

Veins

Arterioles

Capillaries

22 / 25

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

Atery

Vein

Arteriole

23 / 25

Which type of blood vessel has a folded endothelium?

Vein

Arterioles

Artery

24 / 25

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

Vein

Arterioles

Artery

25 / 25

Capillaries are made only out of one layer of cells called endothelium. Why is this?

To increase the surface area.

To reduce the diffusion pathway.

To decrease surface area.

Thank you for taking the quiz. Please fill in the fields below and you will receive your results in an email.

If you have been set this as homework, you should forward this email to your teacher as evidence you have completed the quiz.

If you don't receive your email please check your spam or junk folder.

Your score is

Posts pagination

← Newer Posts 1 … 4 5 6 … 9 Older Posts →

Recent Posts

Categories