Control of Expression

Category: Control of Expression

Although all cells within an organism carry the same genetic code, different parts of the code can be ‘turned on’ , and used by different cells. This ‘turning on’ of genes is called gene expression. It is the different expression of genes which allows cells to have different features and functions.

Mutations are re-visited in this unit ( also in unit 4) , but extended to look at inversion, duplication and translocation of bases. Some mutations will lead to a change in the entire reading frame after that point, and this is called a frame shift. Mutation of tumour suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes can lead to cancer.

Cancer can also be influenced by epigenetics. Epigenetics is the marking of DNA or histone proteins, which affects the likelihood of that section of DNA being expressed or not. Epigenetic control  is perhaps  the biggest discovery this century in the field of  Biology. The marks are in the form of acetylation or methylation, and have been found to have strong roles in disease states such as cancer.

Another recent discovery in the control of expression has been the discovery of Small Interfering RNAs ( siRNA) . Here RNAs bind to mRNA’s causing them to be degraded by enzymes, and therefore preventing that mRNA from being translated.

Gene technologies are ever advancing, and this is taken into account with the acknowledgement that sequencing methods for example are constantly improving . Recombinant DNA technologies are revisited from GCSE, and advanced by looking at the Polymerase Chain Reaction ( PCR) as a method of in vitro DNA replication. The use of DNA probes and hybridisation, along with genetic finger-printing are also included in this section.

77

Nucleic Acids Recap from Year 1

1 / 25

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

2 / 25

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

3 / 25

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

4 / 25

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

5 / 25

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

6 / 25

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

7 / 25

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

8 / 25

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

9 / 25

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

10 / 25

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

11 / 25

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

12 / 25

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

13 / 25

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

14 / 25

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

15 / 25

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

16 / 25

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

17 / 25

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

18 / 25

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

19 / 25

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

20 / 25

Which type of DNA is not circular?

21 / 25

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

22 / 25

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

23 / 25

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

24 / 25

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

25 / 25

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

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84

Mutations and Cancer

1 / 25

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

2 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

3 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

4 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

5 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred?

6 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

7 / 25

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

8 / 25

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

9 / 25

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

10 / 25

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

11 / 25

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

12 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

14 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

15 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

16 / 25

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

17 / 25

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

18 / 25

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

19 / 25

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

20 / 25

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

21 / 25

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

22 / 25

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

23 / 25

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

24 / 25

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

25 / 25

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

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96

Protein Synthesis Recap and Transcription Factors

1 / 24

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

2 / 24

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

3 / 24

Which molecule is created during transcription?

4 / 24

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

5 / 24

What is the removal of introns called?

6 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

7 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

8 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

9 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

11 / 24

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

12 / 24

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

13 / 24

Where are transcription factors often stored?

14 / 24

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

15 / 24

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

16 / 24

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

17 / 24

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

18 / 24

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

19 / 24

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

20 / 24

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

21 / 24

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

22 / 24

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

23 / 24

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

24 / 24

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

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86

Stem Cells, Epigenetics and siRNA

1 / 25

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

2 / 25

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

3 / 25

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

4 / 25

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

5 / 25

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

6 / 25

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

7 / 25

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

8 / 25

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

9 / 25

What are iPS cells?

10 / 25

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

11 / 25

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

12 / 25

What is an advantage of using iPS cells to treat degenerative disorders, instead of embryonic stem cells?

13 / 25

What is 'Epigenetics'?

14 / 25

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

15 / 25

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

16 / 25

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

17 / 25

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

18 / 25

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

19 / 25

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

20 / 25

What causes epigenetic markers to be added or removed from DNA?

21 / 25

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

22 / 25

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

23 / 25

Which molecule does the SIRNA / protein complex (RISC) bind to?

24 / 25

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

25 / 25

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

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40

Recombinant DNA Technology

1 / 25

Sometimes when trying to find a gene which important in a particular disease, it is useful to find out what genes the diseased cells have used (expressed) by extracting mRNA rather than DNA. However, mRNA cannot be used in genetic modifications. What do we need to change it into to be able to use it?

2 / 25

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 25

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

4 / 25

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

5 / 25

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

6 / 25

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

7 / 25

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

8 / 25

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

9 / 25

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

10 / 25

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

11 / 25

What bond does DNA ligase create?

12 / 25

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

13 / 25

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

14 / 25

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

15 / 25

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

16 / 25

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

17 / 25

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

18 / 25

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

19 / 25

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

20 / 25

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

21 / 25

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

22 / 25

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

23 / 25

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

24 / 25

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

25 / 25

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

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