Cells

Category: Cells

In this unit of A Level Biology: Cells, we start by testing your knowledge of Eukaryotic Organelles. Extending on from the basics learnt at GCSE, this quiz expects you to be able to identify and give the detailed function from the familiar Nucleus, through to the newly introduced Golgi Body and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.

The next quiz then looks at Prokaryotic structure. Focusing predominantly on Bacteria, this quiz looks at the differences between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes; particularly looking at DNA and Binary Fission.

Your mathematical skill is tested in Magnification , with your ability to convert units, understand Order of Magnitude, and work out the magnification and Actual size of images shown. Following on from this, Microscopes and Fractionation tests your understanding of the difference between Scanning and Transmission Electron microscopes. It also, applies your knowledge of the technique of Cell fractionation, where centrifugation at different speeds is used to separate out organelles.

Eukaryotic Cell division is tested in the Mitosis quiz. Where you need to be able identify Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase. You also need to understand the role of Interphase in the Cell Cycle.

Two quizzes are dedicated to the Plasma Membrane. You will need to know the structure of the Phosopholipid Bilayer,and  how that relates to function. How different molecules can pass across the Membrane, is also tested and again links into other units further on in A Level Biology.

Lastly we look at the Immune response : both the cellular response via T cells, and the Humoral response via B cells. The role of antibodies is tested both with in the Immune Response, but also in a second quiz on Monoclonal Antibodies.

475

Eukaryotic Cell Structure

1 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

2 / 20

Which out of the following cell types are eukaryotic?

A = Animal, B=Bacterial, P=Plants, F=Fungi

3 / 20

Name this organelle.

4 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

5 / 20

Name this organelle.

6 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

7 / 20

Name this organelle.

8 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

9 / 20

What are the inner membrane folds called in this organelle?

10 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

11 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is B?

12 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is C ?

13 / 20

Name this organelle.

14 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

15 / 20

What ISN'T organelle A?

16 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

17 / 20

Name this organelle

18 / 20

Name structure A

19 / 20

Name structure B

20 / 20

Name part C

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316

Prokaryotic Cell Structure

1 / 20

Which of the following organelles has a different structure in prokaryotes when compared to eukaryotes.

2 / 20

Which of the following organelles has the SAME structure in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

3 / 20

True or false : Prokaryotic DNA coils around histones.

4 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

5 / 20

Name structure A

6 / 20

What substance is layer A made out of?

7 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

8 / 20

Why might structure 'A' be useful in gut bacteria ?

9 / 20

What is structure F called?

10 / 20

What is structure D called?

11 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

12 / 20

Which of these structures is completely absent in eukaryotic cells?

13 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

14 / 20

True or false: Generally prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

15 / 20

Name the method of division, that prokaryotes use for replication ( spell it correctly!)

16 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

17 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

18 / 20

Bacterial cell division creates.

19 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

20 / 20

True or False : plasmids are passed on by binary fission only.

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142

Magnification

1 / 10

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

2 / 10

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

3 / 10

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

4 / 10

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

5 / 10

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line B (length) in the image measures 3.5 cm, and the actual cell measures 7μm. What is the magnification of this image of the palisade cell?

6 / 10

The Christae of the mitochondrion shown in this picture are 2m x 10-8wide (A). How many 'nm' is this ?

7 / 10

Assume the image of the scale bar in this picture is 2cm long. What is the magnification of this image?

8 / 10

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

9 / 10

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

10 / 10

Use the scale bar ( assume it measures 2cm) to calculate the actual diameter of virus particle A ( Assume it measures 3.5cm)

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221

Microscopes and Fractionation

1 / 20

What term describes the ability to see two separate points, as two separate points. Rather than one large point on an image ? (You need to spell it correctly!)

2 / 20

Which of the following organelles are visible with a light microscope?

a) Nucleus
b) Lysosomes
c) Chloroplasts

3 / 20

Which of the following are NOT visible with a light microscope?

a) Plant Permanent Vacuole
b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Golgi Body

4 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

5 / 20

What does SEM stand for?

6 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produces a 2D image?

7 / 20

Which type of electron microscope show the density of the specimen as a dark patch?

8 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can only be used on non-living samples?

9 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

10 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

11 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

12 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

13 / 20

To look at a sample under a microscope, you need to prepare a temporary mount. Why does the specimen have to be thin?

14 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

15 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

16 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

17 / 20

Which organelle will be found in supernatant C?

18 / 20

The process shown in the diagram is 'Cell ___________' (spell it correctly)

19 / 20

Why must the solution used to homogenise be cold?

20 / 20

As well as being cold, what must the solution also be?

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259

Mitosis

1 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

2 / 20

What happens in G1 phase?

3 / 20

What happens in S phase?

4 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

5 / 20

What term is given to describe G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase combined? ( Spell it correctly)

6 / 20

How long is one complete cell cycle on this graph?

7 / 20

Between which times does synthesis take place?

8 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

9 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

11 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

12 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

13 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

14 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

15 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

16 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

17 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

18 / 20

To calculate the 'Mitotic Index' you need to stain your root tip cells. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate stain to view Chromosomes with?

19 / 20

In a garlic root tip squash, a student observed 124 cells, of which 19 has visible chromosomes. What was the mitotic index for that tissue?

20 / 20

In a suspected lung cancer tissue sample, a histopathologist observed 19 cells out of a total of 320 in mitosis. The average mitotic index for healthy human lung tissue is 0.04. Is the patient likely to have cancer or not?

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256

Membrane Structure

1 / 20

Which part is hydrophobic?

2 / 20

Name molecule J (Spell it correctly)

3 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

4 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

5 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

6 / 20

Which molecule makes up part D?

7 / 20

Name structure E.

8 / 20

What substance will structure C be made out of?

9 / 20

Name structure G.

10 / 20

Name molecule I.

11 / 20

Which molecules are found in A?

12 / 20

What type of molecules are most likely to pass through C?

13 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

14 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

15 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

16 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. which tube would you predict shows beetroot incubated at 20 0C?

17 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

18 / 20

Why can more pigment leak out across the plasma membrane at a higher temperature (800C) ?

19 / 20

In this version of required practical 4, 1cm beetroot cores are soaked in different concentrations of ethanol - 0%, 10%, 20%and 30%. Which graph represents the expected results ?

20 / 20

Which is the best explanation for the effect of ethanol on membrane permeability?

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175

Transport Across Membranes

1 / 20

Other than glucose, which substance can be absorbed from the ileum via co-transport?

2 / 20

During co-transport of glucose in the ileum, active transport is needed to establish a concentration gradient of which substance?

3 / 20

Which protein needs to be used first in the co-transport of glucose across a membrane. For example in the ileum.

4 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

5 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

6 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

7 / 20

True or False: Facilitated diffusion can use ATP

8 / 20

True or false : Active transport can go down a concentration gradient, or up a concentration gradient.

9 / 20

True or false : Facilitated diffusion can use channel proteins or transport proteins, but active transport only uses transport proteins.

10 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Why did flask F plateau?

11 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

12 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Calculate the rate of the uptake of sodium ions in flask G, in the first 20 minutes.

13 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

14 / 20

Which type of membrane protein is not involved in facilitated diffusion?

15 / 20

Does a concentration gradient need to be established before facilitated diffusion can take place?

16 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

17 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will increase the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

 

18 / 20

Which part of the phospholipid bilayer prevents sodium ions leaving via simple diffusion?

19 / 20

Why can't glucose diffuse directly through the phospholipids?

20 / 20

Which of the following molecules can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Lipids

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184

Osmosis

1 / 16

What type of transport is osmosis?

2 / 16

Is a higher water potential...

3 / 16

What is the water potential of pure water?

4 / 16

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from :

5 / 16

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from:

6 / 16

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

7 / 16

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

8 / 16

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

9 / 16

A worm native to fresh water will die when placed in sea water. Why is this?

10 / 16

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

11 / 16

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

12 / 16

Read the above passage. Before reweighing, the potato was blotted dry. Which of the following is NOT a reason for doing this?

13 / 16

Look at the above graph, what is the concentration of sodium chloride inside the potato cells?

14 / 16

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

15 / 16

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

16 / 16

Which term describes a solution with a lower water potential than the cells bathed in it?

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221

The Immune Response

1 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

2 / 20

Which type of cell can engulf a pathogen?

3 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

4 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a phagosome?

5 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

6 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

7 / 20

Digested pathogen proteins can be displayed on the cell surface membrane of a phagocyte. What is this called?

Type your answer.

8 / 20

Which type of cell activates other immune cells in an immune response?

9 / 20

Which type of cell travels to the site of infection, and secretes a chemical which kills infected cells?

10 / 20

What happens to a B lymphocyte when it is activated?

11 / 20

True or False - Plasma cells are clones.

12 / 20

True or False - Each B cell has an antibody with a different shaped variable region on its membrane.

13 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

14 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

15 / 20

On the above diagram, where would an antigen bind?

16 / 20

What is the primary function of a vaccination?

17 / 20

NMO is a disease NMO is a disease that leads to damage to nerve cells in the spinal cord. A person with NMO produces anti-AQP4 antibody that attacks only these nerve cells. Explain why the anti-AQP4 antibody only damages these cells

18 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Calculate the percentage increase in the mean concentration of antibodies in blood between samples 2 and 3.

19 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 1 and 2 .

20 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 2 and 3.

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