Biology Quizzes

Category: Biological Molecules

You will get to grips with the very basic molecules of life. Each quiz takes you through the structure of each monomer, the structural differences between them, and how they join together to become biological polymers.

We start with Carbohydrate Structure, looking first at the Monosaccharides;Alpha and Beta Glucose, and how through condensation reactions, they can be joined together by glycosidic bonds to make disaccharides. From here we test your knowledge of the structural differences, and resulting differences in the properties of the polysaccharides : Amylose, Amylo-pectin, Cellulose and Glycogen.

Lipid structure, and the structural differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is tested here along with Ester linkages ( or bonds).

Protein structure again starts with the monomers; Amino Acids. The quiz tests your knowledge of the carboxyl group and the amino group, and the differing R groups. It tests your ability to identify a peptide bond, and how the order of amino acids dictates the ensuing secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures of proteins.There are two quizzes on Enzymes, and what factors affect enzyme function In these quizzes you will apply your knowledge of protein structure and be able to interpret graphs.

The structure of DNA ( and its single stranded relative RNA) is also tested in this unit; looking at Nucleotide structure, and phosphodiester bonds. In this unit there is also a quiz looking at the fine detail of DNA replication; understanding the role of each enzyme, where it attaches, and which direction it moves in. You are also tested on the evidence of Semi Conservative Replication.

Lastly there is a quiz testing your understanding of the role of inorganic ions such as sodium and phosphate. Building up to  the structure and  role of ATP. The importance of water is the last little section in this quiz , finishing off knowledge which will support every aspect of your A Level understanding from now on.

815

Monosaccharides & Disaccharides

1 / 20

Which elements are found in carbohydrates?

2 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

3 / 20

What type of sugar is fructose?

4 / 20

Which molecule is Beta - Glucose?

5 / 20

Which molecule is NOT glucose ?

6 / 20

Molecule D is NOT alpha glucose. What is wrong with it ?

7 / 20

Are molecules A,B and C isomers of each other?

8 / 20

Which of the following is a type of disaccharide?

9 / 20

What type of reaction is used to join two monosaccharides?

10 / 20

What type of bond forms between two monosaccharides?

11 / 20

Which diagram shows a glycosidic bond - A or B ?

12 / 20

Does this diagram show a glycosidic bond?

13 / 20

Is one of the monomers beta glucose ?

14 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

15 / 20

What are the products of a condensation reaction between two alpha glucose molecules?

16 / 20

What would the products be from the hydrolysis of sucrose?

17 / 20

Which reagent is used to test for reducing sugars?

18 / 20

Which is the correct method to test for reducing sugars?

19 / 20

Are all monosaccharides reducing sugars?

20 / 20

How do you convert sucrose (which will test negative for a reducing sugar) , into monosaccharides which will test positive as a reducing sugar?

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431

Polysaccharides

1 / 20

Which monomer is starch made out of?

2 / 20

What type of bond forms between the monomers in starch?

3 / 20

Name the polymer in the picture.

4 / 20

Name the polymer in the picture

5 / 20

What type of bond forms amylose?

6 / 20

Which two types of polysaccharide form starch?

7 / 20

What is the main structural difference between Amylose and Amylopectin?

8 / 20

This component of starch is coiled. What is the advantage to the organism storing it?

9 / 20

This polysaccharide of glucose is branched. What is the advantage to the organism of branching ?

10 / 20

Starch is insoluble. What is that advantage of being insoluble?

11 / 20

Which monomer is this polysaccharide made out of?

12 / 20

It forms strong, straight fibres called what ?

 

13 / 20

What bonds hold the chains together, and make the these fibres strong?

14 / 20

What role does this polysaccharide have?

 

15 / 20

What feature does this polysaccharide have, that makes it straight?

16 / 20

Which polysaccharide do animal cells use as storage?

17 / 20

Which monomer is the animal storage polysaccharide made out of ?

18 / 20

It is highly branched, what type of glycosidic bond form the base of the branches?

19 / 20

The animal branched molecule, has many more branches than the plant version. Why is this?

20 / 20

What type of glycosidic bond form the main body for the branches?

 

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370

Lipids & Phospholipids

1 / 24

What elements are lipids made out of?

2 / 24

What subunits make up a single triglyceride?

3 / 24

What is the formula for glycerol?

4 / 24

What is the formula for the group at the end of a fatty acid where it bonds to the glycerol?

5 / 24

The 'tail' of a fatty acid can be a variable length molecule. But what type of molecule is the tail?

6 / 24

What word best describes the fatty acid 'tails'?

7 / 24

Which of these three molecules is a fatty acid?

8 / 24

Which of these two molecules is a saturated fatty acid?

9 / 24

What is the general formula for a saturated fatty acid?

10 / 24

Fats that contain unsaturated fatty acids (compared to saturated) are more likely to have:

11 / 24

Which of the following is not true about triglycerides?

12 / 24

What type of bond joins a fatty acid to a glycerol molecule?

13 / 24

What type of reaction is the formation of a triglyceride from its subunits?

14 / 24

Which of the above three molecules shows a correct bond between glycerol and a fatty acid?

15 / 24

What is the standard structure of a phospholipid?

16 / 24

Which of the following terms best describes the phosphate part of a phospholipid?

17 / 24

Triglycerides are good at storing energy. Which part of the molecule stores the most energy?

18 / 24

On the above diagram, what does structure '1' represent?

19 / 24

On the above diagram, what does structure '2' represent?

20 / 24

On the above diagram, what does structure '3' represent?

21 / 24

If this diagram represented the plasma membrane of an epithelial cell in a human small intestine. What solutions would be on side'a' and side 'b'?

22 / 24

Which best represents the hydrophobic area on this diagram?

23 / 24

Which biochemical test is used to identify lipids?

24 / 24

What substance is added to the sample at the start of a test for lipids?

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335

Amino Acids and Proteins

1 / 25

What is the name of the COOH group on an amino acid molecule?

2 / 25

What is the name of the NH2 group on an amino acid molecule?

3 / 25

What does R stand for on an amino acid?

4 / 25

How many naturally occurring amino acids are there in all living things?

5 / 25

Which is the correct structure for an amino acid?

6 / 25

What is wrong with amino acid C?

7 / 25

What is the name of the bond that forms between two amino acids?

8 / 25

Which of the following shows the correct structure of a peptide bond?

9 / 25

What is the name of this molecule?

10 / 25

Glycine and Alanine are two common amino acids. How are their structures different to each other?

11 / 25

Water is produced during the bonding of two amino acids. Where do the hydrogen and oxygen molecules originate from?

12 / 25

What type of reaction could break apart the bonded amino acids?

13 / 25

More than two amino acids joined together is called what?

14 / 25

What do we mean by the 'Primary Structure' of a protein?

15 / 25

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains:

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which bonds form the secondary structure?

16 / 25

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains:

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which type of bond forms between two cysteine R groups?

17 / 25

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains: i)Hydrogen Bonds ii) Ionic Bonds iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges. Which type of bond/bonds form and hold the Tertiary Structure of a protein in place?

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which type of bond/bonds form and hold the Tertiary Structure of a protein in place?

18 / 25

What level of protein structure contains alpha helices and beta pleated sheets?

19 / 25

Which of the following is the best description of the 'Quaternary Structure' of a protein?

 

20 / 25

Antibodies are made out of 4 polypeptide chains, with no prosthetic group. How many levels of protein structure will they have?

21 / 25

The structure of a protein relates to its function. What is the best description of a channel protein from the following?

22 / 25

What is the name of the biochemical test for proteins?

 

23 / 25

The sample needs to be treated before adding the regent. How does it need to be treated?

24 / 25

What is the next reagent to be added after this initial treatment?

25 / 25

What colour shows a positive result?

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295

Enzymes

1 / 20

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by doing what?

2 / 20

Enzymes are biological catalysts: they speed up reactions. This allows the reactions to happen at...

 

3 / 20

True or False : Endothermic enzyme controlled reactions do not require activation energy?

4 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the activation energy without an enzyme?

5 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the product?

6 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the activation energy with an enzyme?

7 / 20

Is the reaction on the above diagram exothermic or endothermic?

8 / 20

What substance are enzymes made out of?

9 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

10 / 20

Enzymes have a very specific shape. What type of bonds hold it in that shape?

11 / 20

What is the function of the active site?

a) To hold the substrate in such a way as to strain the bonds so they are easier to break. or
b) To hold the substrate in such a way, as to allow new bonds to form.

12 / 20

Which letter represents the active site in this diagram?

13 / 20

Which letter represents the enzyme-substrate complex in this diagram?

14 / 20

Looking at the shape of the substrate, which molecule could it be?

15 / 20

Which word best describes the shape of the substrate?

16 / 20

This model of enzyme action has now been replaced by another more recent one. What is the more recent model called?

17 / 20

Which of the following is true, in the currently accepted model of enzyme action?

18 / 20

A scientist measured the rate of removal of amino acids from a polypeptide with and without an enzyme present. With the enzyme present, 500 amino acids were released per second. Without the enzyme, 2.0 × 10-8 amino acids were released per second. Calculate by how many times the rate of reaction is greater with the enzyme present.

19 / 20

In this reaction, what is the activation energy for the enzyme catalysed reaction?

20 / 20

In this reaction, what percentage difference in energy needed for an enzyme catalysed reaction, compared to an uncatalysed one?

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245

Factors Affecting Enzymes

1 / 25

Which letter on the above graph shows when the enzyme is denatured?

2 / 25

Which letter on the above graph shows when the most enzyme-substrate complexes will be formed?

3 / 25

What has happened to the enzyme when it becomes denatured with a high temperature?

4 / 25

When an enzyme is denatured, which bonds are NOT broken?

5 / 25

On the above graph, lines A and B represent the same enzyme, in identical conditions; the only difference is the temperature.

What would happen to the red line after this point ?

6 / 25

The optimum temperature for this enzyme is actually 40oC. Describe what the line would look like on the above graph.

7 / 25

Which points on the above graph show when the enzyme is denatured?

8 / 25

Which bonds are disrupted by changes in pH?

9 / 25

Which letter on the above graph is the ' Saturation' point?

10 / 25

Why does the graph plateau?

11 / 25

If everything else was kept the same, what effect would adding more enzyme have on the position of the line?

12 / 25

Which line shows the rate when substrate is limited ?

13 / 25

Explain why line B forms a plateau:

14 / 25

Will line A ever plateau if the substrate is unlimited?

15 / 25

Where do competitive inhibitors bind ?

16 / 25

Describe what the line would look like when a competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

17 / 25

How do competitive inhibitors bring about a decrease in rate?

18 / 25

How do you reduce the effect of a competitive inhibitor?

19 / 25

Where do non-competitive inhibitors bind?

20 / 25

Describe what the line would look like when a non-competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

21 / 25

Explain how non-competitive inhibitors reduce rate.

22 / 25

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

23 / 25

Methanol is toxic. It binds to the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase . Ethanol is similar in structure to methanol. One treatment for Methanol poisoning is to drink a lot of ethanol. What type of inhibitor is methanol?

24 / 25

Penicillin works by binding to an enzyme called transpeptidase in bacteria, changing the shape of the active site. When penicillin binds, it means the bacteria can no longer make cross-bridges in the bacterial cell wall. What type of inhibitor is penicillin?

25 / 25

Viagra is a similar shape to cyclic GMP ( cGMP). Both will block an enzyme called PDE5. cGMP causes vasodilation. What sort of inhibitor is Viagra?

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369

Structure of DNA & RNA

1 / 20

DNA and RNA are both polymers of which monomer?

2 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled A

3 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled B.

4 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled C.

5 / 20

Name the pentose sugar found in DNA.

6 / 20

What is the difference in the pentose sugar in DNA, compared to RNA?

7 / 20

Name the type of bond that forms when two DNA monomers attach.

8 / 20

How many types of organic base are there in DNA and RNA?

9 / 20

What base does the 'A' stand for?

10 / 20

What base does the 'C' stand for?

11 / 20

What base does the 'T' stand for?

12 / 20

What type of bond forms between complementary base pairs?

13 / 20

How many bonds form between a 'C' and a 'G' ?

14 / 20

The two strands in DNA are 'antiparallel'. What does antiparallel mean?

15 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

16 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were T?

17 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were C?

18 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were G?

19 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

20 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

 

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385

DNA Replication

1 / 20

Which enzyme breaks the bonds between complementary base pairs in preparation for DNA replication?

2 / 20

What type of bonds are broken between the DNA bases when replication starts?

3 / 20

Which molecules bind to the exposed bases when DNA becomes single stranded?

4 / 20

Which enzyme works along the template DNA strand, joining new monomers together?

5 / 20

How many bonds form between the Bases C and G when the base pair?

6 / 20

A single DNA strand has two ends - one called 5 prime (5') and one called 3 prime (3'). To which end of the new DNA strand does the enzyme bind in DNA replication?

7 / 20

Which direction does the enzyme move along the template strand A?

8 / 20

In the diagram, what name is given to strand A?

9 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only move in one direction along the template strand.

10 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only bind to double stranded DNA?

11 / 20

What name is given to the DNA fragments labelled C in the diagram?

12 / 20

Which two letters represent 5' ends of the DNA strand?

13 / 20

The diagram shows a template strand of DNA. Which of the following is the order the first 5 new bases will be added (first in the sequence, would be first to be added)?

14 / 20

Which pair of scientists proved the method by which DNA replicated?

 

15 / 20

By which method does DNA replicate?

16 / 20

In this experiment bacteria were grown in a growth medium containing N15. What isN15?

17 / 20

In this experiment, bacteria were grown for many generations in a medium containing N15. The bacteria were then removed from the N15 , and placed in medium containing .N14.. When The DNA from this first generation was centrifuged ( tube A), what pattern did the DNA bands form?

18 / 20

In this experiment bacteria grown in N15, were then treansfered to N14, and allowed to divide for two generations ( tubeB). Describe what the cenrifuged DNA bands would look like.

19 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Conservative method, what would the DNA bands look like after one generation in N14 medium(Tube A)?

20 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Dispersive method ( fragments from each strand mixed), what would the DNA bands look like after two generations in N14 medium (Tube B)?

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268

ATP, Water and Inorganic Ions

1 / 20

What does ATP stand for?

2 / 20

What is the name of molecule B?

3 / 20

What type of molecule is part C ?

4 / 20

Which process requires the use of ATP?

5 / 20

The average human makes and breaks-down its own body mass in ATP every day ( approximately 70 kg). Why is this?

6 / 20

What type of reaction is involved in the breakdown of ATP?

7 / 20

Which bond is broken when ATP is used?

8 / 20

Name the enzyme involved in the breakdown of ATP

9 / 20

ATP can be used to add a phosphate group onto molecules. What is this process known as?

10 / 20

Which equation represents the action of ATP Synthase?

11 / 20

What charge will be on the hydrogen atoms in this molecule?

12 / 20

What word best describes this molecule?

13 / 20

What type of bond forms between water molecules?

14 / 20

Are the bonds between water molecules stronger or weaker than covalent bonds?

 

15 / 20

Many important substances in biological systems are ionic. What property of water allows these substances to dissolve and make water a good solvent?

16 / 20

Water has a high latent heat of vaporisation, why is this useful to organisms?

17 / 20

Water has a high specific heat capacity, why is this useful to organisms?

18 / 20

An ion with a negative charge is called an anion. Which of the following is NOT an anion?

19 / 20

Which of the following molecules contain a phosphate group?

20 / 20

Hydrogen ionconcentration is used to calculate pH. Which of the following statements is true?

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Category: Cells

In this unit of A Level Biology: Cells, we start by testing your knowledge of Eukaryotic Organelles. Extending on from the basics learnt at GCSE, this quiz expects you to be able to identify and give the detailed function from the familiar Nucleus, through to the newly introduced Golgi Body and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.

The next quiz then looks at Prokaryotic structure. Focusing predominantly on Bacteria, this quiz looks at the differences between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes; particularly looking at DNA and Binary Fission.

Your mathematical skill is tested in Magnification , with your ability to convert units, understand Order of Magnitude, and work out the magnification and Actual size of images shown. Following on from this, Microscopes and Fractionation tests your understanding of the difference between Scanning and Transmission Electron microscopes. It also, applies your knowledge of the technique of Cell fractionation, where centrifugation at different speeds is used to separate out organelles.

Eukaryotic Cell division is tested in the Mitosis quiz. Where you need to be able identify Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase. You also need to understand the role of Interphase in the Cell Cycle.

Two quizzes are dedicated to the Plasma Membrane. You will need to know the structure of the Phosopholipid Bilayer,and  how that relates to function. How different molecules can pass across the Membrane, is also tested and again links into other units further on in A Level Biology.

Lastly we look at the Immune response : both the cellular response via T cells, and the Humoral response via B cells. The role of antibodies is tested both with in the Immune Response, but also in a second quiz on Monoclonal Antibodies.

477

Eukaryotic Cell Structure

1 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

2 / 20

Which out of the following cell types are eukaryotic?

A = Animal, B=Bacterial, P=Plants, F=Fungi

3 / 20

Name this organelle.

4 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

5 / 20

Name this organelle.

6 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

7 / 20

Name this organelle.

8 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

9 / 20

What are the inner membrane folds called in this organelle?

10 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is A?

11 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is B?

12 / 20

This is found inside most eukaryotic cells, what is C ?

13 / 20

Name this organelle.

14 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

15 / 20

What ISN'T organelle A?

16 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

17 / 20

Name this organelle

18 / 20

Name structure A

19 / 20

Name structure B

20 / 20

Name part C

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318

Prokaryotic Cell Structure

1 / 20

Which of the following organelles has a different structure in prokaryotes when compared to eukaryotes.

2 / 20

Which of the following organelles has the SAME structure in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

3 / 20

True or false : Prokaryotic DNA coils around histones.

4 / 20

True or False : Prokaryotic ribosomes are the same as eukaryotic ribosomes

5 / 20

Name structure A

6 / 20

What substance is layer A made out of?

7 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

8 / 20

Why might structure 'A' be useful in gut bacteria ?

9 / 20

What is structure F called?

10 / 20

What is structure D called?

11 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

12 / 20

Which of these structures is completely absent in eukaryotic cells?

13 / 20

Which layer controls movement in and out of the cell?

14 / 20

True or false: Generally prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

15 / 20

Name the method of division, that prokaryotes use for replication ( spell it correctly!)

16 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

17 / 20

How are the circular chromosomes separated in prokaryotic reproduction?

18 / 20

Bacterial cell division creates.

19 / 20

True or false : plasmids contain non essential genes

20 / 20

True or False : plasmids are passed on by binary fission only.

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143

Magnification

1 / 10

Which of the following is equivalent to 1m x 10-6 ?

2 / 10

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

3 / 10

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

4 / 10

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

5 / 10

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line B (length) in the image measures 3.5 cm, and the actual cell measures 7μm. What is the magnification of this image of the palisade cell?

6 / 10

The Christae of the mitochondrion shown in this picture are 2m x 10-8wide (A). How many 'nm' is this ?

7 / 10

Assume the image of the scale bar in this picture is 2cm long. What is the magnification of this image?

8 / 10

How big is the biggest gap between the christae ( B)? Assuming that the image shows B to be 7mm, and the scale bar to be 2cm?

9 / 10

Assume the scale bar in this image is 2cm long, what is the magnification of this image?

10 / 10

Use the scale bar ( assume it measures 2cm) to calculate the actual diameter of virus particle A ( Assume it measures 3.5cm)

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222

Microscopes and Fractionation

1 / 20

What term describes the ability to see two separate points, as two separate points. Rather than one large point on an image ? (You need to spell it correctly!)

2 / 20

Which of the following organelles are visible with a light microscope?

a) Nucleus
b) Lysosomes
c) Chloroplasts

3 / 20

Which of the following are NOT visible with a light microscope?

a) Plant Permanent Vacuole
b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Golgi Body

4 / 20

What does TEM stand For?

5 / 20

What does SEM stand for?

6 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produces a 2D image?

7 / 20

Which type of electron microscope show the density of the specimen as a dark patch?

8 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can only be used on non-living samples?

9 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

10 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

11 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

12 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

13 / 20

To look at a sample under a microscope, you need to prepare a temporary mount. Why does the specimen have to be thin?

14 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

15 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

16 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet B?

17 / 20

Which organelle will be found in supernatant C?

18 / 20

The process shown in the diagram is 'Cell ___________' (spell it correctly)

19 / 20

Why must the solution used to homogenise be cold?

20 / 20

As well as being cold, what must the solution also be?

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260

Mitosis

1 / 20

The diagram shows the cell cycle. What does 'M' stand for in the diagram? ( Spell it correctly)

2 / 20

What happens in G1 phase?

3 / 20

What happens in S phase?

4 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

5 / 20

What term is given to describe G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase combined? ( Spell it correctly)

6 / 20

How long is one complete cell cycle on this graph?

7 / 20

Between which times does synthesis take place?

8 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

9 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

Name the organelles which produce the spindle fibres. ( Spell it correctly)

11 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

12 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

13 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

14 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

15 / 20

At the end of telophase, the cytoplasm cleaves. What is this process called? ( spell it correctly)

16 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

17 / 20

To perform a 'Root Tip Squash' , what do you have to do to your root tip cells prior to staining?

18 / 20

To calculate the 'Mitotic Index' you need to stain your root tip cells. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate stain to view Chromosomes with?

19 / 20

In a garlic root tip squash, a student observed 124 cells, of which 19 has visible chromosomes. What was the mitotic index for that tissue?

20 / 20

In a suspected lung cancer tissue sample, a histopathologist observed 19 cells out of a total of 320 in mitosis. The average mitotic index for healthy human lung tissue is 0.04. Is the patient likely to have cancer or not?

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259

Membrane Structure

1 / 20

Which part is hydrophobic?

2 / 20

Name molecule J (Spell it correctly)

3 / 20

Which part is hydrophilic?

4 / 20

What name describes the double layered structure of a membrane? (Spell it correctly)

5 / 20

Name the part of molecule J, which makes up part B.

6 / 20

Which molecule makes up part D?

7 / 20

Name structure E.

8 / 20

What substance will structure C be made out of?

9 / 20

Name structure G.

10 / 20

Name molecule I.

11 / 20

Which molecules are found in A?

12 / 20

What type of molecules are most likely to pass through C?

13 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

14 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

15 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

16 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. which tube would you predict shows beetroot incubated at 20 0C?

17 / 20

What piece of equipment can you use to measure the colour change? (spell it correctly)

18 / 20

Why can more pigment leak out across the plasma membrane at a higher temperature (800C) ?

19 / 20

In this version of required practical 4, 1cm beetroot cores are soaked in different concentrations of ethanol - 0%, 10%, 20%and 30%. Which graph represents the expected results ?

20 / 20

Which is the best explanation for the effect of ethanol on membrane permeability?

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176

Transport Across Membranes

1 / 20

Other than glucose, which substance can be absorbed from the ileum via co-transport?

2 / 20

During co-transport of glucose in the ileum, active transport is needed to establish a concentration gradient of which substance?

3 / 20

Which protein needs to be used first in the co-transport of glucose across a membrane. For example in the ileum.

4 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

5 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

6 / 20

Would the number of carrier proteins present affect the rate of active transport across a membrane?

 

7 / 20

True or False: Facilitated diffusion can use ATP

8 / 20

True or false : Active transport can go down a concentration gradient, or up a concentration gradient.

9 / 20

True or false : Facilitated diffusion can use channel proteins or transport proteins, but active transport only uses transport proteins.

10 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Why did flask F plateau?

11 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

12 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Calculate the rate of the uptake of sodium ions in flask G, in the first 20 minutes.

13 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

14 / 20

Which type of membrane protein is not involved in facilitated diffusion?

15 / 20

Does a concentration gradient need to be established before facilitated diffusion can take place?

16 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will decrease the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

17 / 20

Which of the following factors when increased, will increase the rate of diffusion?

a) The Concentration Gradient

b) The Surface Area

c) The Diffusion Pathway

 

18 / 20

Which part of the phospholipid bilayer prevents sodium ions leaving via simple diffusion?

19 / 20

Why can't glucose diffuse directly through the phospholipids?

20 / 20

Which of the following molecules can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Lipids

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185

Osmosis

1 / 16

What type of transport is osmosis?

2 / 16

Is a higher water potential...

3 / 16

What is the water potential of pure water?

4 / 16

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from :

5 / 16

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from:

6 / 16

Complete this sentence: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a partially ________ membrane . Type your answer:

7 / 16

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

8 / 16

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

9 / 16

A worm native to fresh water will die when placed in sea water. Why is this?

10 / 16

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

11 / 16

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

12 / 16

Read the above passage. Before reweighing, the potato was blotted dry. Which of the following is NOT a reason for doing this?

13 / 16

Look at the above graph, what is the concentration of sodium chloride inside the potato cells?

14 / 16

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

15 / 16

In the above experiment, why would the student be advised to take repeat readings?

16 / 16

Which term describes a solution with a lower water potential than the cells bathed in it?

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224

The Immune Response

1 / 20

Name the molecules that generate an immune response when detected by the body. Type your answer.

2 / 20

Which type of cell can engulf a pathogen?

3 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

4 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a phagosome?

5 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

6 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

7 / 20

Digested pathogen proteins can be displayed on the cell surface membrane of a phagocyte. What is this called?

Type your answer.

8 / 20

Which type of cell activates other immune cells in an immune response?

9 / 20

Which type of cell travels to the site of infection, and secretes a chemical which kills infected cells?

10 / 20

What happens to a B lymphocyte when it is activated?

11 / 20

True or False - Plasma cells are clones.

12 / 20

True or False - Each B cell has an antibody with a different shaped variable region on its membrane.

13 / 20

What is it called when the two variable regions of an antibody form a complex with two pathogens?

Type your answer.

14 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

15 / 20

On the above diagram, where would an antigen bind?

16 / 20

What is the primary function of a vaccination?

17 / 20

NMO is a disease NMO is a disease that leads to damage to nerve cells in the spinal cord. A person with NMO produces anti-AQP4 antibody that attacks only these nerve cells. Explain why the anti-AQP4 antibody only damages these cells

18 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Calculate the percentage increase in the mean concentration of antibodies in blood between samples 2 and 3.

19 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 1 and 2 .

20 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 2 and 3.

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Category: Exchanges of Substances with the Environment

In this unit we get our first taste of Physiology in A Level biology - and start to look at how the body functions and systems with-in organisms.

We pick up from GCSE looking at Surface Area to Volume ratio, and adaptations of this that allow organisms to survive; for example,  at different temperatures. Surface area also links into the gaseous exchange systems in humans, insects, fish and plants. Understanding of the human gaseous exchange system also requires understanding and interpreting data on diseases which affect it.

Mass Transport means the movement of substances around a multicellular organism. In many organisms this takes the form of a circulatory system. In this unit, we look at Haemoglobin, and  oxygen dissociation curves. You need to be able to describe the effect of partial pressure of oxygen on haemogoblin’s affinity for oxygen. You also need to be able to describe the Bohr effect, and apply your knowledge to what may be unfamiliar species such as lugworms.

In terms of gross anatomy, at A level several major arteries such as the aorta, pulmonary and renal arteries need to be identified, and more importantly the structural differences between arteries, veins and capillaries. The structures of the heart also need to be identified, all be it in much the same level as higher GCSE. The cardiac cycle is extended from GCSE, looking at interpreting pressure changes , and calculating cardiac output and stroke volume. Cardiovascular disease data must be interpreted, including; atheroma, and thrombus formation.

Mass transport in plants has two separate routes:transpiration for water via xylem, and mass flow for organic substances via phloem.  Once again, GCSE is extended to looking at cohesion -tension in the xylem, and translocation via mass flow hypothesis in plants. In the Mass Flow  Hypothesis, changes in water potential caused by the formation of soluble substances (like glucose) cause pressure changes, which push the solutes towards ‘sinks’ where the solute concentration is lowered.

124

Surface Area to Volume Ratio and Adaptations to Exchange

1 / 20

The surface area in biology often refers roughly to how much skin an organism has, or how much cell membrane a cell has. Which of the following will have the biggest surface area, if they are all approximately the same length and width?

2 / 20

A Palisade cell is rectangular, and measures 100 µm by 40 µm. What is its surface area?

3 / 20

What is the volume of the same palisde cell measuring 100 µm by 40 µm?

4 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a palisade cell with a volume of 120,000 µm 3 and a surface area of 6500 µm2?

5 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

6 / 20

What is the volume of the same roughly spherical spongy mesophyll cell with a diameter of 80 µm, using the formula Volume=4/3 pi r 3?

7 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a spongy mesophyll cell with the surface area of 24,000 µm 2, and a volume of 110,000µm 3?

8 / 20

Is it important which way round the numbers go when writing a ratio?

9 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are they a similar volume (within 5% difference)?

10 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are the two agar blocks a similar surface area (within 5% difference)?

11 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Which one will decolourise quickest when placed in an acidic solution ?

12 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. You have chosen one which will decolourise the quickest, why did you choose that block?

13 / 20

Why can single celled organisms exchange many substances by simple diffusion over the plasma membrane?

14 / 20

Multicellular organisms cannot absorb enough substances by diffusion. Why is this?

15 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

16 / 20

Some animals are adapted to higher temperatures in their environment. Which of the following is an example of this ?

17 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

18 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at colder temperatures?

19 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

20 / 20

Which is an example of a behavioural adaptation which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

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194

Human Gaseous Exchange & Lung Disease

1 / 25

Which letter represents the trachea?

2 / 25

Which two letters would be held open by C shaped cartilage rings?

3 / 25

Which letter represents the diaphragm?

4 / 25

Which term best describes breathing?

5 / 25

What shape is the diaphragm when it is contracted?

6 / 25

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

7 / 25

Which of the following is the correct sequence for inhalation?

8 / 25

True or False - Air moves into the lungs because the internal pressure in the lungs drops below the atmospheric pressure?

9 / 25

Which muscles contract when you exhale at rest?

10 / 25

Which muscles contract during forced expiration?

11 / 25

As oxygen diffuses from the alveolar air space into the blood, how many layers of cells does it pass over?

12 / 25

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

13 / 25

How is a concentration gradient maintained between the alveolar space and the blood?

14 / 25

What does Pulmonary Ventilation Rate (PVR) mean?

15 / 25

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If someone take 60 breaths over 5 minutes, and takes in 230 cm3, what is their PVR?

16 / 25

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If the breathing rate is 7, and the PVR is 1.4 dm3 min -1, what is the tidal volume?

17 / 25

If someone's PVR is 1.5dm3 min -1, and their tidal volume is 150 cm 3, how many breaths do they take in a minute?

18 / 25

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

19 / 25

Why might the FEV be lower for person B?

20 / 25

Why would someone with Pulmonary Fibrosis have a reduced rate of oxygen diffusion?

21 / 25

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria infecting the lungs, where amongst other effects it reduces tidal volume. What happens to the ventilation rate of sufferers?

22 / 25

Emphysema is caused by what?

23 / 25

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

24 / 25

Sufferers of emphysema also have reduced elastin in the alveolar walls. What effect does this have on breathing?

25 / 25

What is 'Tidal Volume'?

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191

Fish, insect and Plant Gaseous Exchange

1 / 25

Why do some xerophytes have hairs over the stomatal pits?

2 / 25

Why do some xerophytes have their stomata in pits?

3 / 25

What is a xerophyte?

4 / 25

Why do the guard cells become 'curved' when they swell up?

5 / 25

How does water move into the guard cells?

6 / 25

Which term describes that guard cells when the plant has plenty of water available?

7 / 25

Why are there large gaps between the mesophyll cells ?

8 / 25

How is a concentration gradient maintained inside the leaf?

9 / 25

Which number represents a layer which is 2 or 3 times thicker in desert plants?

10 / 25

Which number represents cells that can control water loss?

11 / 25

Which number represents a stoma?

12 / 25

Which number represents the layer where gaseous exchange happens in plants?

13 / 25

What maintains the concentration gradients for gaseous exchange in the tracheoles?

14 / 25

Oxygen diffuses out of the tracheoles directly into what?

15 / 25

Which letter represents the part that can control water loss?

16 / 25

Which letter is the tracheae?

17 / 25

Which letter is the spiracles?

18 / 25

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

19 / 25

Why does the blood flow in an opposite direction the the water?

20 / 25

The blood and water flow in opposite directions, what is this called?

21 / 25

What is the function of the lamellae?

22 / 25

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

23 / 25

Using the diagram, which part is a gill filament?

24 / 25

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

25 / 25

The Great White Shark and Black-tipped Reef Shark are two species which must keep swimming to stay alive. Why is this?

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181

Haemoglobin and Circulatory System

1 / 25

Haemoglobin is a quaternary protein, how many polypeptide chains make up a single molecule of haemoglobin?

2 / 25

Why is haemoglobin described as being 'Quaternary'?

3 / 25

What term describes the haem groups which contain iron?

4 / 25

How many oxygen molecules can each haem group carry?

5 / 25

What unit do we use to measure the concentration of oxygen in the tissue?

6 / 25

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

7 / 25

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

8 / 25

On the graph, which letter shows where it is hardest for oxygen to associate?

9 / 25

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

10 / 25

What is it called, when Carbon Dioxide causes the dissociation curve to shift?

11 / 25

During the Bohr Effect, what happens to the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?

12 / 25

Why is it useful that the Bohr Effect reduces the percentage saturation of Haemoglobin with oxygen?

13 / 25

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for humming bird haemoglobin?

14 / 25

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

15 / 25

In which direction ( if any) , would the curve be for human foetal haemoglobin?

16 / 25

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Vena Cava?

17 / 25

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Pulmonary Vein?

18 / 25

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

19 / 25

What do we call the arteries which supply the kidneys?

20 / 25

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

21 / 25

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

22 / 25

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

23 / 25

Which type of blood vessel has a folded endothelium?

24 / 25

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

25 / 25

Capillaries are made only out of one layer of cells called endothelium. Why is this?

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124

Heart Structure and Heart Disease

1 / 25

Name the structures labelled A

2 / 25

Name the structures labelled B

3 / 25

When will the valves close?

4 / 25

One of the phases of the cardiac cycle is called Atrial Systole. During Atrial Systole, what is happening in the heart during this phase?

5 / 25

What happens to the heart during Diastole?

6 / 25

What happens during Ventricular Systole?

7 / 25

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm3 , and a HR of 52 bpm?

8 / 25

What is the stroke volume of a patient if their cardiac output is 3500 cm3 min-1, and their heart rate is 70 bpm?

9 / 25

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

10 / 25

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

11 / 25

What has happened at position A?

12 / 25

What has happened at position B?

13 / 25

What has happened at position C?

14 / 25

What has happened at position D?

15 / 25

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

16 / 25

What is Cardiovascular Disease?

 

17 / 25

What is an Atheroma?

18 / 25

What is a Thrombosis?

19 / 25

Which of the following IS NOT a way that smoking contributes to the risk of CVD?

20 / 25

Which of the following is a way a high salt content in your diet increases your risk of developing CVD?

21 / 25

Does this bar cart show a correlation between number of cigarettes smoked, and the risk of CVD?

22 / 25

This bar chart shows the risk of CVD with differing amounts of cigarettes smoked per day. Is there a significant difference in risk between smoking no cigarettes, and smoking 1 - 19 cigarettes a day?

23 / 25

Is there a significant difference between risk of CVD smoking -19 cigarettes a day and more than 20 cigarettes a day?

24 / 25

Does this chart show a causal relationship between Risk of CVD and smoking?

25 / 25

Why can we not state using this data, CVD is caused by smoking?

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89

Mass Transport in Plants

1 / 25

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is living, but with few organelles.

2 / 25

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

3 / 25

Xylem or Phloem ? - No end plates on these cells

4 / 25

What is transpiration the movement of?

5 / 25

Through which part does the water evaporate out of the leaf?

6 / 25

The evaporation of water molecules out of the leaf, 'pulls' the water molecules behind up. What is this 'pull' called ?

7 / 25

Water molecules stick together due to what type of bond?

8 / 25

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

9 / 25

Which of the following would decrease the rate of transpiration?

10 / 25

How does an increase in wind speed, increase the rate of transpiration?

11 / 25

What piece of equipment is used to measure transpiration ?

12 / 25

Which direction will the bubble move?

13 / 25

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

14 / 25

How do you calculate the rate of water transpired by the plant?

15 / 25

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

16 / 25

What is translocation the movement of?

17 / 25

In terms of translocation, what is an 'assimilate'?

18 / 25

Which of the following is an example of a 'source' ?

19 / 25

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

20 / 25

The Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best explanation for translocation in plants. What does it suggest happens at 'sources'?

21 / 25

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

22 / 25

What happens to the solutes at the sink?

23 / 25

At the sink, solutes are removed from the phloem, what effect does this have on water movement?

24 / 25

Which of the following is evidence against the mass flow hypothesis?

25 / 25

If a small tube is inserted into the phloem through the bark of a tree, sap containing sucrose leaks out. Where on the tree will the most sap leak from due to the highest hydrostatic pressure?

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Category: Genetic Variation and Information

In this unit, we start off with DNA and RNA as the genetic molecules from unit 1, this time  identifying differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA, and chromosome structure. Extending from GCSE, we look at protein synthesis and the process of  transcription. This is the use of RNA polymerase to make complementary pre-mRNA from a coding section of DNA. The pre-mRNA contains introns, which are then spliced out to form the shorter mRNA. Translation then occurs in the ribosome. Here, we meet a new clover shaped polynucleotide : transfer RNA. tRNA  has  anticodons on the bottom loop, complementary to the codons on the mRNA, and specific amino acids on the top. The ribosome has space for 3 tRNA.s to dock, and join together the amino acids to form a polypeptide.

Genetic variation can occur due to mutation or meiosis. A few simple mutations to the base sequence of DNA are discussed here ( there are more in Unit 8), along with independent segregation and ‘crossing over’ of chromatids in the first phases of meiosis. This genetic variation is then applied to Natural Selection. Students need to be able to differentiate between directional and stabilising selection.

Phylogenetic classification uses evolutionary origins as a way of grouping organisms into a hierarchy. The different organisms can be grouped by biochemical similarity . The most obvious of this is the sequence of DNA, which is obviously linked to the primary structure of key proteins.

In this unit, students are also expected to develop maths skills , including calculation of means and standard deviation, and understanding what standard deviation represents.  Although, standard deviation will not be need to be calculated in the AQA exam.

199

Genes and Chromosomes

1 / 25

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are an homologous pair?

2 / 25

Eukaryotic DNA is stored, wrapped around which type of protein?

3 / 25

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

4 / 25

Which type of DNA is not circular?

5 / 25

Describe how prokaryotic DNA is stored

6 / 25

What is a gene?

7 / 25

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

8 / 25

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

9 / 25

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

10 / 25

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

11 / 25

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

12 / 25

What is an allele?

13 / 25

What is the genome of a cell?

14 / 25

What is the proteome of a cell?

15 / 25

How many chromosomes do most human cells contain?

16 / 25

What is an 'homologous chromosome'?

17 / 25

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

18 / 25

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

19 / 25

In an homologous pair of chromosomes...

 

20 / 25

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are not an homologous pair?

21 / 25

On this diagram, what does A represent?

22 / 25

On this diagram, what does B represent?

23 / 25

On this diagram, what does C represent?

24 / 25

On this diagram, what does D represent?

25 / 25

What do H and h represent?

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216

Protein Synthesis

1 / 30

DNA is read in sets of three bases called what?

2 / 30

What word describes the fact there is more than one set of three bases for each amino acid?

3 / 30

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

4 / 30

What does RNA stand for?

 

5 / 30

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

6 / 30

Which is the true statement about DNA compared to RNA?

7 / 30

The genetic code on RNA is read in a set of three bases called a...

8 / 30

What does the 'm' stand for in mRNA?

9 / 30

What is transcription?

10 / 30

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

11 / 30

Which bonds are broken by the enzyme used in transcription?

12 / 30

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

13 / 30

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

14 / 30

Which term describes the specific attraction of bases?

15 / 30

What is the base-pairing pattern in DNA to RNA?

16 / 30

What bond is formed between the free RNA bases, once they have formed complementary base pairs?

17 / 30

What molecule is made in eukaryotic transcription?

18 / 30

What molecule is made in prokaryotic transcription?

19 / 30

What stops the RNA polymerase?

20 / 30

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

21 / 30

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

22 / 30

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

23 / 30

What is translation?

24 / 30

Where does translation take place?

25 / 30

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

26 / 30

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

27 / 30

How many tRNA molecules can fit into a ribosome at any time?

28 / 30

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

29 / 30

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

30 / 30

What molecule is formed at the end of translation?

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177

Meiosis

1 / 24

What word describes cells which contain pairs of chromosomes?

2 / 24

What word do we use to describe the pairs of chromosomes?

3 / 24

What word describes cells which contain single chromosomes?

4 / 24

On this diagram, what does A represent?

5 / 24

On this diagram, what does B represent?

6 / 24

On this diagram, what does C represent?

7 / 24

On this diagram, what does D represent?

8 / 24

Before meiosis starts, the primary spermatocyte or oocyte replicates its chromosomes and organelles. What is this phase called?

9 / 24

There are now two identical copies of each chromosome, held together by the centromere. Which term best describes these identical copies?

10 / 24

How many chromatids are present in a human cell at the start of meiosis?

11 / 24

As there are now 4 chromatids in each homologous pair, they are sometimes called what?

12 / 24

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

13 / 24

Which number represents metaphase 1 of meiosis?

14 / 24

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

15 / 24

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

16 / 24

What is the order of events from the diagram for Meiosis division 2?

17 / 24

How is variation introduced during prophase 1?

18 / 24

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

19 / 24

How does recombination increase variation?

20 / 24

During Metaphase 1, the homologous pairs can line up with either the paternal chromosome above, or the maternal chromosome above. What is this phenomenon called?

21 / 24

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

22 / 24

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

23 / 24

A sheep cheek cell which is not dividing has 54 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present during Meiotic Prophase 1 in the testes?

24 / 24

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

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101

Mutation and Genetic Diversity

1 / 21

What is a gene mutation?

2 / 21

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

3 / 21

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACCTTGG

4 / 21

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

5 / 21

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

6 / 21

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

7 / 21

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

8 / 21

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

9 / 21

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

10 / 21

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

11 / 21

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

12 / 21

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

13 / 21

Which of the following will reduce genetic diversity in a population?

14 / 21

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

15 / 21

Which is an example of a Genetic Bottleneck?

16 / 21

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

17 / 21

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

18 / 21

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

19 / 21

Tristan De Cunha is an island populated by a small number of Britons in the early 1800's. What is this an example of ?

20 / 21

Why do the modern day population of Tristan De Cunha has a much higher than average incidence of the genetic disorder Retinitis Pigmentosa?

21 / 21

The Amish in America are a closed community, which only reproduce with-in their own population. They are descended from 200 Swiss who migrated there. They have a much higher proportion of alleles which cause genetic disorders, rarely seen in the rest of the population. What is this an example of?

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59

Natural Selection

1 / 19

How do new alleles occur in a population?

2 / 19

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

3 / 19

What does 'Differential Reproductive Success' mean?

4 / 19

Why do most mutations cause a decrease in reproductive success?

5 / 19

A mutation in a population of bed bugs in New York City caused the bedbugs to have a thicker, waxier exoskeleton. Why will the allele for thicker , waxier exoskeleton in bed bugs increase in the population?

6 / 19

Stray dogs in the Moscow Subway have learnt to beg for food, and are able to identify humans most likely to feed them. What type of adaptation is this ?

7 / 19

The Western Corn Rootworm has developed resistance to a protein pesticide found in transgenic crops. The protein no longer damages the digestive tract of the insect.

8 / 19

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

9 / 19

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

10 / 19

What type of selection is shown on this graph?

11 / 19

Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

12 / 19

What type of selection is shown on the graph?

13 / 19

What type of selection is resistance to antibiotics by bacteria?

14 / 19

Which of the following has contributed to the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

15 / 19

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

16 / 19

The development of antibiotic resistance is an example of what type of selection?

17 / 19

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

18 / 19

True or false : The most effective antibiotic for E Coli O121 will also be the most effective antibiotic for EColi K1.

19 / 19

What technique is required when culturing bacteria?

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Category: The Transfer of Energy

Life depends on continuous transfers of energy.

In this unit we start with photosynthesis. Splitting it into the light dependent reactions (LDR), and the Light Independent reactions (LIR).

LDR take place in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplasts. Light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, and results in electron transfer, which in turn creates a proton gradient, and the enzyme ATP synthase to produce ATP.  The LDR also produces reduced NADP, which together with carbon dioxide enter the Calvin cycle and produce triose phosphate which can be converted to other organic molecules such as glucose. There are also three required practicals on the cross board CPAC linked to photosynthesis.

In aerobic respiration, the breakdown of glucose as a respiratory substrate starts with glycolysis in the cytoplasm, which then links to the mitochondria. Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, finishing off with the Electron Transport Chain producing ATP.

This unit extends to the transfer of energy between organisms, as Net Primary Productivity (NPP) . this is Gross Primary Productivity ( GPP) minus respiratory losses. This extends to animals ( consumers) when N ( Net production) is equal to chemical energy ingested, minus losses in faeces, urine and respiration. Farming practices are designed to make these transfers most efficient.

Finally, nutrients alo cycle through the ecosystem, and at A Level biology , these focus on the Nitrogen cycle and the Phosphorus cycle. This is extended to A level by the role of saprobionts and mycorrhizae.

61

The Light Dependent Reactions of Photosynthesis

1 / 20

Name structure B

2 / 20

Name structure E

3 / 20

Which letter represents a lamella?

4 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

5 / 20

What molecule is represented by 'B' on the diagram?

6 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

7 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

8 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

9 / 20

What type of molecule will pick up the 'high energy' electrons in PSII?

10 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

11 / 20

The splitting of water at PSII creates molecules A & B, what do A and B represent?

12 / 20

Where does the energy needed for the splitting of water originate?

13 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

14 / 20

What is structure D?

15 / 20

Once light has hit structure D, and the electrons have left the chlorophyll, they can either be passed on to form F or follow path 'G'. What is path 'G'?

16 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

17 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

18 / 20

Which chemical does 'E' represent?

19 / 20

Which chemical does 'F' represent?

20 / 20

The transfer of electrons along the carrier proteins causes hydrogen ions to be moved across the membrane, causing a proton concentration gradient. the protons than pass back through the membrane creating ATP. What is the name of this process involving using electrons to produce a concentration gradient?

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18

The Light Independent Reactions of Photosynthesis

1 / 20

Where in a chloroplast do the Light Independent Reactions ( LIRs) occur? ( watch your spelling!)

2 / 20

Which two products from the Light Dependent Reactions ( LDRs) does the Calvin Cycle use?

3 / 20

Name substance A

4 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in substance A?

5 / 20

Name substance D

6 / 20

Name substance B

7 / 20

How many carbon atoms are there in ONE molecule of substance B?

8 / 20

Name molecule F

9 / 20

Name the enzyme that converts A to B.

10 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

11 / 20

Name substance C

12 / 20

How many atoms of carbon in ONE molecule of substance C?

13 / 20

Which substance goes on to create other organic molecules?

14 / 20

How many turns of the Calvin Cycle are required to balance the number of carbon atoms to produce one glucose molecule?

15 / 20

How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

16 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

17 / 20

If six molecules of molecule C are produced, how many will be regenerated into substance A?

18 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are required to generate TWO molecules of glucose ?

19 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

20 / 20

How many molecules of H are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

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8

Limiting Factors and Photosynthesis Practicals

1 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

2 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

3 / 20

A buffer was not used in the above experiment, what would happen to the pH during the experiment.

4 / 20

Which wavelength of light would the rate of photosynthesis be lowest in the above experiment?

5 / 20

Which wavelengths would the rate of photosynthesis be highest in the above experiment?

6 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

7 / 20

Why did the student set up tube 1?

8 / 20

Explain the results in tube 3.

9 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. Why did the scientists measure the rate of oxygen produced?

10 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. In each trial scientists collected oxygen for 15 minutes. Calculate the difference in oxygen produced from mutant plants at low and high light intensities at a light intensity of 500 μmol photons m–2s–1. Measured in μmol O2 mg–1 hour.

11 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

12 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. What is the saturation point of Normal plants grown in high light?

13 / 20

Name the technique detailed in the above diagram ( spell it correctly!)

14 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

15 / 20

True or False - Using a different solvent does not alter the distance travelled by different substances in this technique?

16 / 20

How do you calculate the Rf value for a substance?

17 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

18 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the concentration of carbon dioxide on the rate of photosynthesis?

19 / 20

Which graph represents the effect of changing the temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

20 / 20

If 'X' on graph A represents 'Light Intensity', what effect would increasing carbon dioxide have on the line (represented in green on the diagram)?

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37

Respiration: Glycolysis and Link Reaction

1 / 20

Where does glycolysis occur?

2 / 20

Glycolysis usually shows the breakdown of glucose, but is glucose the only respiratory substrate which can feed into glycolysis?

3 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

4 / 20

How many carbons are present in glucose phosphate?

5 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

6 / 20

How many phosphate groups are present in hexose bisphosphate?

7 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

8 / 20

Name molecule Z

9 / 20

Name molecule Y

10 / 20

Name molecule X

11 / 20

How many carbon atoms does molecule X contain?

12 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Y at the end of glycolysis?

13 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Z at the end of glycolysis?

14 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

15 / 20

What happens to molecule Y during the conversion of triose phosphate to molecule X?

16 / 20

What happens to molecule X after it has been generated?

17 / 20

Name the above process: The ______ _________

18 / 20

What is represented by molecule C?

19 / 20

What is represented by molecule D?

20 / 20

How many reduced NADs have been produced from one glucose molecule by the end of the link reaction?

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33

Respiration: Krebs Cycle

1 / 20

How many pyruvate molecules are made from one glucose molecule in glycolysis?

2 / 20

How many carbon atoms are carried into the Krebs cycle in each Acetyl Co A?

3 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

4 / 20

How many times does the Krebs cycle happen per glucose molecule?

5 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

6 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

7 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of molecule B?

8 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

9 / 20

Which two processes turn Citrate into the 5C intermediate?

10 / 20

Which molecule is represented by Y?

11 / 20

How many molecules of Y will be produced by the krebs cycle from a single molecule of glucose?

12 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

13 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

14 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of Oxaloacetate?

15 / 20

If 3 million molecules of glucose are respired aerobically, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced by the Krebs Cycle?

16 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

17 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

18 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Oxaloacetate produced by cells exposed to IDH1 ?

19 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Acetyl Co A produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

20 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. If IDH1 acted as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme, how would it reduce enzyme activity?

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31

Respiration: The Electron Transfer Chain

1 / 22

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

2 / 22

Which of the following substances is NOT a co-enzyme?

3 / 22

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

4 / 22

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by A?

5 / 22

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

6 / 22

What is represented by molecule Y?

7 / 22

What is passed along the 4 protein complexes - represented by 'W' on the diagram?

8 / 22

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

9 / 22

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

10 / 22

As the ETC flows, what will happen to the pH of A?

11 / 22

Name molecule 'Z'

12 / 22

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

13 / 22

What should go in box 'X'?

14 / 22

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

15 / 22

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced NAD generate?

16 / 22

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

17 / 22

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

18 / 22

How many molecules of ATP are generated in aerobic respiration from one glucose molecule entering glycolysis, to the end of the ETC?

 

19 / 22

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

20 / 22

Is the column for the link reaction in the above diagram correct?

21 / 22

Is the column for Krebs in the above diagram correct?

22 / 22

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

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58

Anaerobic Respiration & Respiration Experiments

1 / 18

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in animal cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Lactic Acid

2 / 18

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in yeast cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Ethanol

3 / 18

In which stage of respiration is oxygen required?

4 / 18

If oxygen isn't available, which substance cannot be regenerated in high enough amounts to keep the system running?

5 / 18

In the absence of oxygen as the final electron acceptor, some processes of aerobic respiration cannot occur. Some of the processes however can continue, which is the last stage that can still function?

6 / 18

The diagram above represents anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

7 / 18

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'X'.

8 / 18

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'W'.

9 / 18

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Y'.

10 / 18

The diagram represents anaerobic respiration, name substance 'Z'.

11 / 18

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

12 / 18

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Y'.

13 / 18

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Z'.

14 / 18

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

15 / 18

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

16 / 18

In this investigation, are the yeast respiring anaerobically or aerobically ?

17 / 18

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

18 / 18

The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

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68

Biomass, Gross and Net Primary Productivity

1 / 15

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

2 / 15

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

3 / 15

Which would be the most accurate method of sampling dry biomass?

4 / 15

What does GPP stand for?

5 / 15

What does GPP represent in a given area?

6 / 15

What is the formula for NPP?

7 / 15

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

8 / 15

In the formula for the calculation of NPP, what does the 'R' stand for?

9 / 15

In a woodland, 8,150 kJ m-2yr-1 is lost as heat from respiration. The gross primary productivity of the wood is15,000 kJ m-2yr-1. What is the net primary productivity of the woodland?

10 / 15

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

11 / 15

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

12 / 15

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

13 / 15

The diagram shows a food web found in the arctic. the producers have a net productivity of 4.52 x 10 -3 kJ m-2yr-1-2yr-1

14 / 15

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

15 / 15

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. Why is the energy efficiency between Forbs and Rock Ptarmigan lower than that between a Rock Ptarmigan and an Arctic Fox?

a) Because more of the body of the Ptarmigan is eaten than the Frobs.

b) Because more of the Ptarmigan is digested and absorbed (assimilated)

c) Because a Ptarmigan is bigger than a Forbs

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64

The Nitrogen Cycle & Phosphate Cycle

1 / 25

Which term describes an organism which feeds on dead organic matter and digests their food externally? (watch your spelling)

2 / 25

External digestion involves the secretion of enzymes outside of the organisms outer-most layer. Which term best describes this?

3 / 25

Many decomposers secrete enzymes to digest organic matter, then absorb the products they require. The digested products which are not required remain in the soil. The digestion of which organic substance will result in the presence of ammonia in the soil?

4 / 25

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which two processes form nitrification?

5 / 25

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which type of organism carry out process A?

6 / 25

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

7 / 25

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

8 / 25

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

9 / 25

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

10 / 25

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

11 / 25

Nitrogen fixation from gas to compound, requires a large amount of energy (at least 16 ATP molecules and 8 electrons). A select few bacteria can carry out this task, but which of the following CANNOT fix nitrogen?

12 / 25

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

13 / 25

Some fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. What are these fungi/root structures called?

14 / 25

What are the strands of fungi called?

15 / 25

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

16 / 25

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

17 / 25

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of inorganic ions from the soil by a plant.

18 / 25

True or False : Symbiotic fungi generally increase the amount of glucose in a plant.

19 / 25

Which of the following molecules require phosphorus? a) Protein b) DNA c) ATP

20 / 25

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

21 / 25

The above diagram shows the phosphorus cycle. Name process B

22 / 25

What is 'Guano'?

23 / 25

The concentration of nitrates and phosphates in the soil can be increased by the addition of fertiliser, but what ecological damage can this cause?

24 / 25

Nitrates and Phosphates are mostly soluble, so they can easily run off into waterways. What is this process called?

25 / 25

Put the following into the correct order:

a) Lower plants die due to lack of photosynthesis.
b)Fish die due to lack of dissolved oxygen.
c) Decomposers respire aerobically to decompose the dead plant matter.
d) Increased algae blocks out the light.
e) Minerals leach into the waterway.
f) Increased minerals cause an algae to grow rapidly.

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Category: Responding to Change

A stimulus is a change in the internal or external environment, which can be detected by a receptor, and an effect brought about by an effector. In this unit, we look at how different organisms detect and coordinate these responses.

Plants respond to stimuli via growth factors. At A Level, this is based around Indole Acetic Acid (IAA). the responses are slow, growth responses called tropisms. There have been many experiments on plant responses, and some of these are tested in here.

Animals ( such as many invertebrates) can have simple responses to stimuli that can enable a motile organism, to move to a favourable environment. These are either taxes , which are directional responses, or kineses, which are non-directional responses.

Nervous coordination includes the establishment and maintenance of a negative resting potential,and the generation of an action potential due to changes in membrane permeability to sodium and potassium ions. Once again, we extend GCSE basic understanding of synapses, to consider summation and inhibition too. Receptors are cells that detect specific stimuli, and cause the establishment of  a generator potential. In a pacinian corpuscle, the stimulus is pressure.  We also use the examples of rod and cone cells as receptors that detect light.

Skeletal muscle is an effector. The arrival of an action potential causes biochemical changes which results in cycles of actinomyosin bridge breaking and  formation.

Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment. Specifically we look at the control of blood glucose via insulin and glucagon. Also the action of adrenaline, and the second messenger model. We also look specifically at the control of water potential of the blood via ADH on the kidney.

58

Responses in Plants

1 / 20

Plant responses to stimuli are controlled by what?

2 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

3 / 20

What is a growth response to light called?

4 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

5 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a plant growth factor?

6 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

7 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

8 / 20

What effect does low concentrations of IAA have on root tissue?

9 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

10 / 20

Which of the following is true?

11 / 20

In shoot tips which are lit from the side, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found?

12 / 20

In root tips growing parallel to the soil, where will the highest concentration of IAA be found ?

13 / 20

How does IAA become unevenly distributed?

14 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he removed a shoot tip then replaced it show?

15 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he placed a black cover over the tip show?

16 / 20

What does Boysen and Jensen's experiment using agar show?

17 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

18 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

19 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

20 / 20

Mica is like thin glass, and is impermeable to most substances. What does Boysen Jensen's experiment inserting mica show ?

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42

Taxis and Kinesis

1 / 15

What is the definition of a stimulus?

2 / 15

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

3 / 15

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

4 / 15

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

5 / 15

True or false : Taxis is a directional movement

6 / 15

Flatworms turn more frequently in response to an increase in light intensity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

7 / 15

True or False : Taxis is only ever away from a stimulus

8 / 15

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

9 / 15

Maggots follow a scent up a concentration gradient towards a food source. Is this taxis or kinesis?

10 / 15

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

11 / 15

Honey bees can detect the polarised light from the sun and use it to navigate even in cloudy weather. Is this taxis or kinesis?

12 / 15

What piece of equipment do animal scientists use to investigate the effect of different stimuli on invertebrates?

13 / 15

In the above experiment on woodlice, what is the Independent variable?

14 / 15

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

15 / 15

In the above experiment, you hypothesised that a woodlouse responds by kinesis to a change in light intensity. What would be the best way to measure a response which shows kinesis?

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140

Nerves: The Resting Potential

1 / 10

How can charged ions cross a plasma membrane?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

2 / 10

When an neurone axon is at rest, what charge is the extra cellular fluid compared to the cytoplasm?

  • a) Simple Diffusion
  • b) Facilitated Diffusion
  • c) Active Transport

3 / 10

Which word best describes the charge distribution across a resting axon plasma membrane?

4 / 10

Across a resting human neurone plasma membrane, what is the average potential difference?

5 / 10

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

6 / 10

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

7 / 10

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

8 / 10

Name protein B in the above diagram.

9 / 10

Name protein A in the above diagram.

10 / 10

Name protein C in the above diagram.

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114

Nerves: Action Potentials

1 / 19

Stimulation ( either by a generator potential in a receptor cell or a neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane) caused which type of channel to open?

2 / 19

After a stimulation has occurred, why do ions move out of an axon?

3 / 19

What do we call the process happening at '3' on the above diagram?

4 / 19

What ion is moving during process '3' on the above diagram?

5 / 19

Which direction are the ions moving during process 3 on the above diagram?

6 / 19

Name the process happening at '4' on the above diagram?

7 / 19

Which ions are moving across the membrane during process '4'?

8 / 19

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

9 / 19

Name stage 5 on the above diagram ( spell it carefully!)

10 / 19

What has happened at stage 5?

11 / 19

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

12 / 19

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

13 / 19

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

14 / 19

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

15 / 19

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

16 / 19

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

17 / 19

True or false: If more sodium channels are opened by a stimulus, then the action potential which is generated is bigger.

18 / 19

True or False: If too few sodium channels are opened by a stimulus on an neurone membrane, then no action potential is generated.

19 / 19

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

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83

Nerves: Conduction Along Axons

1 / 15

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

2 / 15

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

3 / 15

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

4 / 15

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

5 / 15

What the the tiny gaps called labelled X on the above diagram? ( Type your answer)

6 / 15

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

7 / 15

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

8 / 15

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

9 / 15

Once an action potential has been generated, why is the wave of depolarisation only in one direction?

10 / 15

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

11 / 15

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

12 / 15

True or False - The speed of conduction along an unmyelinated neurone is around 5 m/s ( jogging pace).

13 / 15

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

14 / 15

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

15 / 15

Why does an increase in temperature ( up to 40 degrees) cause an increase in the speed of conduction along a neurone?

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100

Nerves: Synaptic Transmission

1 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

2 / 20

Using the diagram, name E

3 / 20

Using the diagram, name D

4 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

5 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

6 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

7 / 20

Put the following statements in order to explain what happens at an excitatory synapse:

  • a) Voltage gated calcium channels open.
  • b) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the pre-synaptic membrane
  • c) If threshold is reached, an action potential is generated
  • d) Calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic neurone.
  • e) Arrival of an action potential
  • f) Neurotransmitters bind to receptors with associated sodium channels
  • g) Neurotransmitters diffuse across the cleft
  • h) Sodium ions diffuse into post synaptic membrane

8 / 20

True or False: Synapses can only transmit an impulse in one direction?

9 / 20

What reduces the concentration of neurotransmitter in a synapse after it has diffused across?

10 / 20

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what?

11 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

12 / 20

If a neurotransmitter binds to the post synaptic membrane and causes potassium ion channels to open, would it be excitatory or inhibitory?

13 / 20

If the concentration of neurotransmitter secreted is very low, then threshold may not be reached. What term describes the process of increasing neurotransmitter release? either by multiple presynaptic neurones forming a single synapse or increasing the frequency of neurotransmitter release. Type your answer

 

14 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

 

15 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

16 / 20

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter which has a role in numerous processes in the brain including pain relief. The release of dopamine can be stimulated by chemicals called endorphins produced in the brain. Endorphins attach to opioid receptors on presynaptic neurones that release dopamine. Morphine is a drug that has a similar structure to endorphins and can provide pain relief, explain how.

17 / 20

GABA is a neurotransmitter released in some inhibitory synapses in the brain. GABA causes negatively charged chloride ions to enter postsynaptic neurones. Explain how this inhibits postsynaptic neurones

18 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

19 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

20 / 20

The table shows the results on investigating how fast an anaesthetic works. Using the results from the machine, was there a significant difference between anaesthetics S and Q?

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35

Nerves: Receptors (Pacinian Corpuscles and Eye)

1 / 15

When a stimulus is detected by a receptor, it generates a potential difference across it's plasma membrane. What is the name of this potential difference?

2 / 15

Can the potential difference created by a receptor have different values depending on the size of the stimulus?

3 / 15

What is the stimulus detected by a Pacinian corpuscle? (type your answer)

4 / 15

Name part A on the above diagram.

5 / 15

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

6 / 15

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

7 / 15

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

8 / 15

In order for an action potential to be generated in a Pacinian corpuscle, what must happen?

9 / 15

The diagram above shows a cross section of a human eye. Name layer A (Type your answer).

10 / 15

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

11 / 15

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

12 / 15

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

13 / 15

What is the structural adaptation which gives rods high sensitivity compared to rod cells?

14 / 15

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

15 / 15

When light falls on cells 1 and 2, only one spot of light is seen. But, when light falls on cells 2 and 3, two spots of light are seen. Say why?

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49

Muscle Contraction

1 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle A

2 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle C

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

4 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

5 / 20

In the above image, which type of protein makes up the myofilaments labelled C? type your answer in carefully.

6 / 20

In the above image, name the unit represented by B.

7 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

8 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents either end of an 'A Band' in muscle?

9 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments an 'M line' in muscle?

10 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

11 / 20

Which protein found in a myofilament has multiple globular heads? (Type your answer carefully).

12 / 20

Which protein blocks the actin-myosin binding site in a relaxed myofibril?

13 / 20

In the sliding filament theory, what causes the actin-myosin binding site to be exposed?

14 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

15 / 20

Breaks down ATP on myosin head

16 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

17 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

18 / 20

What is the role of phosphocreatine in muscle contraction?

19 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

20 / 20

Which of the following is a feature of fast twitch muscle fibres when compared to slow twitch.

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Category: Populations, Evolutions and Genetics

All individuals of a population show variation in their phenotype, caused by the environment and genetics. In this unit, we look at mendelian ratios derived from monohybrid and dihybrid crosses. We also look at sex linkage, autosomal linkage and epistasis.

The Hardy Weinberg equation is a quadratic equation which allows us to calculate allele frequency in a population. The Hardy Weinberg equation assumes a population to be large, with random mating, and no immigration, no emigration, no mutation . To use the Hardy Weinberg, you must first identify what is the recessive allele, and then if the information on that allele is about whole organisms ( in which case use ‘q2’) or number of alleles in which case use ‘q’. Variations due to meiosis and mutation, and ensuing differential reproductive success give rise to new alleles and changes in allele frequency.

This can lead to evolution of new species, called speciation. Speciation can be either allopatric ( geographically separated) or sympatric (reproductively isolated without geographical barriers). This unit also looks at the study of populations in ecosystems. Here we recap terms such as ‘community’ and ‘niche’ and interspecific and intraspecific speciation.

Techniques such as random sampling, belt transects and mark-release-recapture are also covered here. Succession is the process where an ecosystem changes overtime ( this is not the same process as evolution). Pioneer species ( often lichen) are the first species to grow on bare rock, creating a thin soil, so bigger species are then able to take root. Lastly conservation is also covered in this unit.

94

Definitions, Monohybrid, Dihybrid and Codominance

1 / 20

What is a gene?

2 / 20

What is the definition of 'genotype'?

3 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

4 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

5 / 20

What is the definition of 'homozygous'?

6 / 20

What is the definition of 'heterozygous'?

7 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

8 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

9 / 20

How can you tell when an allele is recessive in a pedigree (a family tree)?

10 / 20

In guinea pigs, Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair (s). In a monohybrid cross between a heterozygous mother, with a heterozygous father, what ratio of long hair to short hair will the offspring have ?

11 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born short haired and white?

12 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

13 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

14 / 20

How could you tell if Marfan Syndrome is Dominant by looking at a pedigree ( family tree)?

15 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What percentage of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother TtVv will have Marfan syndrome and a V shaped hair-line ?

16 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

17 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What proportion of the offspring of a heterozygous father (TtVv) and a heterozygous mother (TtVv) will be health and have a V shaped hair-line ?

 

18 / 20

What does the term 'Codominance' mean?

19 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

20 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

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72

Sex Linkage, Autosomal Linkage and Epistasis

1 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

2 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

3 / 20

How can you tell from a pedigree (family tree) that a trait is sex linked?

4 / 20

Which type of allele tends to be sex linked?

5 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

6 / 20

What would be the genotype for a man with colour-blindness (b)?

7 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

8 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

9 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

10 / 20

What is an autosome?

11 / 20

If two genes are on the same chromosome, how do we say they are linked?

12 / 20

How can you tell if two alleles are autosomally linked?

13 / 20

In hamsters two genes are autosomally linked : Fur and Eye colour . Where Ginger fur = G, and White fur =g. Black eyes = B and red eyes = b. In a cross between a homozygous recessive male for both traits and a heterozygous female for both traits , what would be the expected ratio of Ginger & Black eye, White and Black eye, ginger and red eye and white with red eyes?

14 / 20

The actual ratio of phenotypes after several matings between the above two hamsters was more similar to 6:1:1:6. How are the alleles linked?

15 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

16 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

17 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

18 / 20

19 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

20 / 20

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53

Hardy Weinberg & Allele Frequency

1 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

2 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

3 / 20

All the alleles of every gene in a breeding population' is the definition for what?

4 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has ____.

5 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

6 / 20

What is the formula for the Hardy Weinberg equation?

7 / 20

Which part of the Hardy Weinberg equation represents the homozygous recessive individuals?

8 / 20

What does 'p' represent ?

9 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

10 / 20

Drosophila is a type of fruit fly which is used in many genetic experiments. It has two alleles for eye colour : Red ( R) and White (r). If 0.8 of the alleles are red, how many are white?

11 / 20

Drosophila fruit flies can have either vestigial wings (w)or wild-type wings (W). If 20% of the population have vestigial wings, what proportion of the population are homozygous dominant?

12 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

13 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

14 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cystic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. How many individuals will suffer with Cystic Fibrosis in a city of 1.2 million people in it's population?

15 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What proportion of all alleles are for the dark one?

16 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. How many are heterozygotes?

17 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

18 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the allele frequency of the normal healthy genes?

19 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

20 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

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59

Variation, Evolution and Speciation

1 / 25

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

2 / 25

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

3 / 25

In the creation of gametes, which process mixes up the alleles?

4 / 25

What is 'crossing over'?

5 / 25

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

6 / 25

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

7 / 25

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

8 / 25

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

9 / 25

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

10 / 25

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around a middle or mid value, and outliers decrease?

11 / 25

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around an extreme or outlier value?

12 / 25

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

13 / 25

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

14 / 25

What type of variation is show in the graph?

15 / 25

Which type of selection is shown by fossils of black bears, showing them becoming bigger during glacial periods ( ice ages)?

16 / 25

What type of variation is show in the graph?

17 / 25

Which type of selection is human birthweight showing? (As low birth - weight babies and high birth - weight babies are less likely to survive)

18 / 25

What type of variation is show in the graph?

19 / 25

Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

20 / 25

What type of speciation is caused by a physical barrier between two populations such as a body of water?

21 / 25

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

22 / 25

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

23 / 25

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

24 / 25

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

25 / 25

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

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11

Populations in Ecosystems

1 / 24

What is the word used to describe 'Populations of different species in specific habitat'?

2 / 24

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

3 / 24

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

4 / 24

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

5 / 24

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

6 / 24

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

7 / 24

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

8 / 24

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

9 / 24

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

10 / 24

Was the reduction in insects caused by the cold weather an abiotic factor or a biotic factor?

11 / 24

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

12 / 24

Population growth can be exponential . How would we turn a curved population curve into a straight line graph?

13 / 24

What would you press to show a bacterial population graph , plotted with a log 10 scale, back into actual bacterial population?

14 / 24

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

15 / 24

Why is random sampling used?

16 / 24

How many samples should you take to get reliable data?

17 / 24

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

18 / 24

What is the advantage of carrying out an interrupted belt transect compared to belt transect?

19 / 24

What is the equation for Mark Release Recapture?

20 / 24

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

21 / 24

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

22 / 24

Which method would you use to see if there is a difference between the percentage cover of moss on the north face compared to the south face of tree trunks?

23 / 24

Using mark release recapture, what would the population of woodlice be if : 27 were caught in the first sample , and 16 unmarked caught in the second, and 3 were marked?

24 / 24

A student is using a quadrat to estimate percentage cover of clover on the school field. What is the most accurate way to do this?

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11

Succession

1 / 20

What is the biological meaning of succession?

2 / 20

True or false : Succession is the same as evolution.

 

3 / 20

True or false : Succession involves only the change of biotic factors ( Not abiotic).

4 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

5 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

6 / 20

What do we call a stage of succession?

7 / 20

What term do we use to describe lichen and mosses in succession?

8 / 20

At which stage will abiotic factors be most hostile?

9 / 20

Which factor will the lichen and mosses change the most?

10 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

11 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

12 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

13 / 20

What is humus?

14 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

15 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

16 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

17 / 20

What is it called when succession is stopped artificially?

18 / 20

What is the native climax community in the UK?

19 / 20

Which of the following does NOT stop succession?

20 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

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Category: Control of Expression

Although all cells within an organism carry the same genetic code, different parts of the code can be ‘turned on’ , and used by different cells. This ‘turning on’ of genes is called gene expression. It is the different expression of genes which allows cells to have different features and functions.

Mutations are re-visited in this unit ( also in unit 4) , but extended to look at inversion, duplication and translocation of bases. Some mutations will lead to a change in the entire reading frame after that point, and this is called a frame shift. Mutation of tumour suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes can lead to cancer.

Cancer can also be influenced by epigenetics. Epigenetics is the marking of DNA or histone proteins, which affects the likelihood of that section of DNA being expressed or not. Epigenetic control  is perhaps  the biggest discovery this century in the field of  Biology. The marks are in the form of acetylation or methylation, and have been found to have strong roles in disease states such as cancer.

Another recent discovery in the control of expression has been the discovery of Small Interfering RNAs ( siRNA) . Here RNAs bind to mRNA’s causing them to be degraded by enzymes, and therefore preventing that mRNA from being translated.

Gene technologies are ever advancing, and this is taken into account with the acknowledgement that sequencing methods for example are constantly improving . Recombinant DNA technologies are revisited from GCSE, and advanced by looking at the Polymerase Chain Reaction ( PCR) as a method of in vitro DNA replication. The use of DNA probes and hybridisation, along with genetic finger-printing are also included in this section.

77

Nucleic Acids Recap from Year 1

1 / 25

Name the components of a DNA nucleotide.

2 / 25

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

3 / 25

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

4 / 25

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

5 / 25

Name the type of bond that holds the complementary base pairs together.

6 / 25

What does the A stand for in the genetic code?

7 / 25

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

8 / 25

Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?

9 / 25

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

10 / 25

Name the enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between complimentary bases during DNA replication.

11 / 25

What attracts new 'free' nucleotides to the exposed template strand during DNA replication?

12 / 25

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

13 / 25

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

14 / 25

Each complementary strand of DNA runs in opposite directions. What word describes this?

15 / 25

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

16 / 25

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

17 / 25

If a template strand has the code starting at the 5 prime end with 5' GCTAAGCA 3'. What would be the order the bases would be added to the new strand ?

18 / 25

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

19 / 25

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

20 / 25

Which type of DNA is not circular?

21 / 25

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

22 / 25

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

23 / 25

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

24 / 25

Which word describes the sequence of three bases on DNA that code for an amino acid?

25 / 25

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

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84

Mutations and Cancer

1 / 25

What does the term 'Degenerate' mean when referring to the genetic code?

2 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop What would be the order of amino acids in a polypeptide coded from this sequence?

TTCTTGTTATCATAA

3 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

4 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

5 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred?

6 / 25

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

7 / 25

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

8 / 25

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

9 / 25

What word describes when a mutation causes all the following triplet codes to be misread in a different frame?

10 / 25

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

11 / 25

Which of the following would have the most dramatic effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide produced?

12 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

13 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

14 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

15 / 25

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

16 / 25

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

17 / 25

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally increases cell division:

18 / 25

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

19 / 25

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

20 / 25

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

21 / 25

If hypomethylation ( reduced methylation) happens to a tumour suppressor gene what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

22 / 25

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

23 / 25

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

24 / 25

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

25 / 25

Which of the following would NOT increase your exposure to oestrogen?

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96

Protein Synthesis Recap and Transcription Factors

1 / 24

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

2 / 24

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

3 / 24

Which molecule is created during transcription?

4 / 24

What is the difference between mRNA and pre-mRNA?

5 / 24

What is the removal of introns called?

6 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

7 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

 

8 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

9 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

10 / 24

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a polypeptide chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

11 / 24

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

12 / 24

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

13 / 24

Where are transcription factors often stored?

14 / 24

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

15 / 24

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

16 / 24

What type of hormone is oestrogen?

17 / 24

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

18 / 24

Oestrogen can act as a transcription factor. To do so, it needs to bind to what molecule?

19 / 24

Where is the oestrogen receptor located?

20 / 24

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

21 / 24

Which level of protein structure will the binding of oestrogen alter?

22 / 24

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

23 / 24

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

24 / 24

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

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86

Stem Cells, Epigenetics and siRNA

1 / 25

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

2 / 25

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

3 / 25

The morula hollows out into a hollow sphere, with a small group of cells at the bottom called teh inner cell mass which go on to develop into an embryo. What do the outer cells go on to make?

4 / 25

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

5 / 25

Cell differentiation is the process of stem cells becoming more specialised into different types of cell. e.g. Muscle, bone etc. But what is the cause of this differentiation?

6 / 25

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

7 / 25

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

8 / 25

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

9 / 25

What are iPS cells?

10 / 25

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

11 / 25

What substances can be used to take mature, differentiated adult cells, and de-differentiate them back into pluripotent stem cells ?(usually only found in embryos).

12 / 25

What is an advantage of using iPS cells to treat degenerative disorders, instead of embryonic stem cells?

13 / 25

What is 'Epigenetics'?

14 / 25

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

15 / 25

Which area of DNA is particularly affected by methylation?

16 / 25

What effect will having a high methylation of a promoter sequence , have on expression of that gene?

17 / 25

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

18 / 25

Acetylation is the addition of a C2H3O group which contains a double bonded oxygen. Where does acetylation occur?

19 / 25

What effect will increased acetylation have on a gene?

20 / 25

What causes epigenetic markers to be added or removed from DNA?

21 / 25

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

22 / 25

SiRNAs are formed when large double stranded molecules of RNA are cut up into small section which then do what?

23 / 25

Which molecule does the SIRNA / protein complex (RISC) bind to?

24 / 25

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

25 / 25

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

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40

Recombinant DNA Technology

1 / 25

Sometimes when trying to find a gene which important in a particular disease, it is useful to find out what genes the diseased cells have used (expressed) by extracting mRNA rather than DNA. However, mRNA cannot be used in genetic modifications. What do we need to change it into to be able to use it?

2 / 25

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 25

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

4 / 25

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

5 / 25

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

6 / 25

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

7 / 25

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

8 / 25

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

9 / 25

If the same restriction enzyme is used to make two fragments, what can form between the exposed bases on each end if they are mixed with each other?

10 / 25

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

11 / 25

What bond does DNA ligase create?

12 / 25

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

13 / 25

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

14 / 25

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

15 / 25

If a bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid, then it will express the new 'foreign' gene as well as it's own. Which of the following is not a product made by recombinant bacteria?

16 / 25

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

17 / 25

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

18 / 25

Sometimes, two marker genes are used: The first marker gene is often an antibiotic resistance gene to show if the plasmid is present; the bacteria can only grow on a plate containing the antibiotic, if they have the antibiotic resistance gene on the plasmid. The second is often a gene with a colour change, which is broken by the insertion of the fragment.

e.g. An example of a gene to test for the presence of a fragment is Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) glowing or not. What would a bacterial plate look like that contained an antibiotic, and was spread with bacteria which had been transformed with a plasmid and had a new gene fragment in?

19 / 25

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

20 / 25

What enzyme is needed in a PCR reaction ?

21 / 25

In a PCR reaction, the DNA is heated at the start of the cycle to around 95 degrees C. What is the reason for this?

22 / 25

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

23 / 25

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

24 / 25

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

25 / 25

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

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