Biology Random Retrieval Y13

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Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

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PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

Which bond to restriction endonucleases ( restriction enzymes) break?

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Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

4 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

5 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

6 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

7 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

8 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

9 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

10 / 20

Name protein B in the above diagram.

11 / 20

Honey bees can detect the polarised light from the sun and use it to navigate even in cloudy weather. Is this taxis or kinesis?

12 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

13 / 20

In the absence of oxygen as the final electron acceptor, some processes of aerobic respiration cannot occur. Some of the processes however can continue, which is the last stage that can still function?

14 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a single molecule of Oxaloacetate?

15 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

16 / 20

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of Citrate?

17 / 20

What happens to triose phosphate when it is converted to molecule X?

18 / 20

Glycolysis usually shows the breakdown of glucose, but is glucose the only respiratory substrate which can feed into glycolysis?

19 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

20 / 20

Which membrane is represented by 'C' on the diagram?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of inorganic ions from the soil by a plant.

2 / 20

Which stage of the nitrogen cycle does the above equation represent?

3 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrobacter bacteria?

4 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

5 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

6 / 20

What term is used to describe the whole process of using energy from electrons in Redox reactions to generate ATP called?

7 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

8 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

9 / 20

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

10 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Acetyl Co A produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

11 / 20

How many molecules of Y will be produced by the krebs cycle from a single molecule of glucose?

12 / 20

What happens to molecule C?

13 / 20

How many phosphate groups are present in hexose bisphosphate?

14 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

15 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

16 / 20

What does substance H do to substance B?

17 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

18 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

19 / 20

What type of molecule will pick up the 'high energy' electrons in PSII?

20 / 20

Name structure B

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12

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following are features of slow twitch muscle fibres:

A)Lots of aerobic respiration
B)Lots of mitochondria
C)Low levels of myoglobin

2 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

3 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

4 / 20

Using the diagram, name B

5 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

6 / 20

Once an action potential has been generated, what causes the next section of the axon membrane to become depolarised?

7 / 20

When an action potential is generated, there is a temporary reversal of the polarity of the neurone membrane at that point. Does this mean that:

8 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

9 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

10 / 20

In the above diagram, which graph shows the correct effects of increasing a stimulus?

11 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

12 / 20

True or False: A stronger stimulus will generate more frequent action potentials.

13 / 20

Why can't a second action potential pass immediately after the first ?

14 / 20

Stimulation ( either by a generator potential in a receptor cell or a neurotransmitter binding to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane) caused which type of channel to open?

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

16 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

How does IAA become unevenly distributed?

19 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

20 / 20

What word describes the growth response of a plant to a stimulus?

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5

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is it called when succession is stopped artificially?

2 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

3 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': The Warbler Finch has a short slender beak for catching insects whilst, flying. Where as the Large Ground Finch has a strong , deep beak for crushing seeds.

4 / 20

Speciation is when a new species arises from another: they can no longer produce fertile offspring because their DNA is no longer compatible. What term describes this inability between two populations to reproduce successfully?

5 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

6 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

7 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

8 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

9 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

10 / 20

The probability of an individual having Cyctic Fibrosis is about 1 in 2500 in the UK. What proportion of the population will be carriers?

11 / 20

Drosophila is a type of fruit fly which is used in many genetic experiments. It has two alleles for eye colour : Red ( R) and White (r). If 0.8 of the alleles are red, how many are white?

12 / 20

What does 'p' represent ?

13 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

14 / 20

This gene interaction once again alters the phenotype ratio. Which type of Epistatic allele will produce a ratio of 9:3:4?

15 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

16 / 20

Which Chromosome contains more genes?

17 / 20

If B = black, W = white and BW = speckled feathers in hens. Two heterozygous speckled hens mated, what will the ratios be of offspring that are black : speckled : white?

18 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

19 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'recessive allele'?

20 / 20

What is a gene?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

2 / 20

Primers are short single stranded pieces of complementary sequenced DNA. Which ISN'T a reason to add specific primers added to the PCR reaction?

3 / 20

What bond does DNA ligase create?

4 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

5 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

6 / 20

Can extra methylation be removed from the DNA?

7 / 20

What are iPS cells?

8 / 20

Cardiomyocytes are an example of what type of stem cell?

9 / 20

What word describes the inner cell mass now?

10 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

11 / 20

After fertilisation, zygotes ( fertilised eggs) divide by which process?

12 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific ______6____at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an _____7_____ at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome.

The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

13 / 20

Which molecule is created during transcription?

14 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

15 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

16 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be moved from one location to another?

17 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTGTTATAACATAA.

What will be the effect on the mutated polypeptide?

18 / 20

True or False: DNA polymerase requires double stranded DNA in order to initiate DNA replication

19 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

20 / 20

Which component of a nucleotide contains nitrogen atoms?

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