Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

78

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

2 / 20

Two of the above mutations will always cause a non functional protein. Why?

3 / 20

What molecule does the tRNA carry?

4 / 20

DNA is read in sets of three bases called what?

5 / 20

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

6 / 20

What has happened at position A?

7 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

8 / 20

On the graph, which letter shows where it is hardest for oxygen to associate?

9 / 20

Why does the blood flow in an opposite direction the the water?

10 / 20

Which is the variable region on the above diagram?

11 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

12 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

13 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can only be used on non-living samples?

14 / 20

The image shows palisade cells in a leaf. Line A (width) measures 8mm, and the magnification of the image is x10,000. What is the actual width (A) of the palisade cell?

15 / 20

Name this organelle.

16 / 20

Which bonds are disrupted by changes in pH?

17 / 20

What is the name of the biochemical test for proteins?

 

18 / 20

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains:

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which type of bond forms between two cysteine R groups?

19 / 20

What is the name of this molecule?

20 / 20

What type of bond joins a fatty acid to a glycerol molecule?

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40

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Water has a high specific heat capacity, why is this useful to organisms?

2 / 20

What type of bond forms between water molecules?

3 / 20

Name the enzyme involved in the breakdown of ATP

4 / 20

The diagram shows a template strand of DNA. Which of the following is the order the first 5 new bases will be added (first in the sequence, would be first to be added)?

5 / 20

True or False : The enzyme DNA polymerase can only move in one direction along the template strand.

6 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

 

7 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

8 / 20

What is the difference in the pentose sugar in DNA, compared to RNA?

9 / 20

How do you reduce the effect of a competitive inhibitor?

10 / 20

Which bonds are disrupted by changes in pH?

11 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the activation energy without an enzyme?

12 / 20

The sample needs to be treated before adding the regent. How does it need to be treated?

13 / 20

What is the name of the biochemical test for proteins?

 

14 / 20

What do we mean by the 'Primary Structure' of a protein?

15 / 20

Which of the above three molecules shows a correct bond between glycerol and a fatty acid?

16 / 20

Which of these two molecules is a saturated fatty acid?

17 / 20

What is the formula for the group at the end of a fatty acid where it bonds to the glycerol?

18 / 20

Which polysaccharide do animal cells use as storage?

19 / 20

Which monomer is this polysaccharide made out of?

20 / 20

Which molecule is Beta - Glucose?

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27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What happens to a B lymphocyte when it is activated?

2 / 20

When investigating osmosis, why is it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than just the change in mass?

3 / 20

Which protein needs to be used first in the co-transport of glucose across a membrane. For example in the ileum.

4 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Scientists concluded that flask G took up sodium ions by active transport. What is the evidence of this?

a) Uptake in flask G much greater than in flask F , showing use of ATP in flask G

b) Sodium ion concentration in flask G falls to zero, showing uptake against a concentration gradient

5 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

6 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

7 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

8 / 20

Name molecule J (Spell it correctly)

9 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

10 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

11 / 20

Which of the following are NOT visible with a light microscope?

a) Plant Permanent Vacuole
b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Golgi Body

12 / 20

The Christae of the mitochondrion shown in this picture are 2m x 10-8wide (A). How many 'nm' is this ?

13 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

14 / 20

What is structure D called?

15 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

16 / 20

Which of the following organelles has a different structure in prokaryotes when compared to eukaryotes.

17 / 20

Name part C

18 / 20

What ISN'T organelle A?

19 / 20

Name this organelle.

20 / 20

What is the best definition of a eukaryotic cell?

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10

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

2 / 20

Through which part does the water evaporate out of the leaf?

3 / 20

What is an Atheroma?

4 / 20

What has happened at position C?

5 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the widest lumen?

6 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the kidneys?

7 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Vena Cava?

8 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

9 / 20

How many oxygen molecules can each haem group carry?

10 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained inside the leaf?

11 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

12 / 20

Which number represents the layer where gaseous exchange happens in plants?

13 / 20

Oxygen diffuses out of the tracheoles directly into what?

14 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

15 / 20

Pulmonary Ventilation Rate ( PVR) -= Tidal Volume x breathing rate. If someone take 60 breaths over 5 minutes, and takes in 230 cm3, what is their PVR?

16 / 20

Which muscles contract when you exhale at rest?

17 / 20

Which of the following is the correct sequence for inhalation?

18 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

19 / 20

Which is an example of a behavioural adaptation which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

20 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

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10

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What caused the antibiotic resistance in the first place?

2 / 20

How do new alleles occur in a population?

3 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

4 / 20

After a genetic bottleneck, what is true about the alleles of the survivors?

5 / 20

Which is an example of a Genetic Bottleneck?

6 / 20

What happens to the number of different alleles during a genetic bottleneck?

7 / 20

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

8 / 20

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

9 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACTGG

10 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACCTTGG

11 / 20

Before meiosis starts, the primary spermatocyte or oocyte replicates its chromosomes and organelles. What is this phase called?

12 / 20

On this diagram, what does B represent?

13 / 20

During Transcription, the two DNA strands are separated. What attracts free floating RNA nucleotides to the exposed bases?

14 / 20

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

15 / 20

What does the 'm' stand for in mRNA?

16 / 20

What is a difference between RNA and DNA?

17 / 20

What do H and h represent?

18 / 20

True or False : The sex chromosomes ( X and Y) are not an homologous pair?

19 / 20

What is a 'sister chromatid' or 'sister chromosome'?

20 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

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Year 13

51

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in the same place?

2 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 20

What does the RISC complex do to the mRNA?

4 / 20

Which enzyme will the Oestrogen - Oestrogen Receptor ( OOR) activate?

5 / 20

What is the oestrogen receptor called when the oestrogen has bound?

6 / 20

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

7 / 20

Which stage represents the climax community?

8 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

9 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

10 / 20

What type of speciation is caused by reproductive Isolation, but without a physical barrier between two populations?

11 / 20

Which of the following is not a cause of variation?

12 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

13 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

14 / 20

Put the above events ( A-F) in order for the passage an action potential.

15 / 20

The above table shows the volume and density of a fresh wood sample, then the volume and density of the same sample after it was dried. Calculate the percentage of water in the sample (water weighs 1g / ml)

16 / 20

In this investigation, are the yeast respiring anaerobically or aerobically ?

17 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

18 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated by oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC from one molecule of glucose?

19 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

20 / 20

In the chloroplast, many chlorophyll molecules (and other pigments) are attached to protein complexes in the internal membranes, labelled 'A' on the diagram. What are these complexes called ? ( Plural please!)

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

2 / 20

It has been estimated that an area of 8000m2 is needed to keep a cow. The productivity of grass in the UK is 18,000 kJ m-2yr-1

3 / 20

If N = Net productivity, F = Energy in food, U = Energy lost in Faeces and Urine, R = Energy lost in Respiration. What would be the formula for Net productivity?

4 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

5 / 20

The diagram above shows one form of anaerobic respiration, name molecule 'Z'.

6 / 20

The diagram above shows anaerobic respiration in which type of organism?

7 / 20

Name molecule 'Z'

8 / 20

As the ETC flows, what will happen to the pH of A?

9 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the concentration of Acetyl Co A produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

10 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

11 / 20

Molecule B enters the Krebs cycle from the link reaction, what is it ?

12 / 20

What is the net gain of molecule Y at the end of glycolysis?

13 / 20

Name molecule X

14 / 20

Using the information off the diagram, calculate the Rf value for carotene.

15 / 20

Name substance A

16 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

17 / 20

The splitting of water at PSII creates molecules A & B, what do A and B represent?

18 / 20

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons that leave the chlorophyll are replaced by the splitting of water. What is the name of this process?

19 / 20

What type of molecule will pick up the 'high energy' electrons in PSII?

20 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

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11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

2 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

3 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. What is the function of organelle E?

4 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

5 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

6 / 20

Name part A on the above diagram.

7 / 20

Doctors investigated two ways of measuring the effect of general anaesthetics. In one method they timed how long it took to stop blinking, and then repeated the investigation using a machine to record when brain activity showed they were unconscious. Blinking involves cholinergic synapses. Anaesthetic S is a similar shape to acetylcholine. Suggest how anaesthetic S stops the transmission across the synapse.

8 / 20

What term is used to describe when more than one presynaptic neurone releases its neurotransmitter onto single post-synaptic neurone? ( Type your answer carefully)

9 / 20

True or False - Axons with a narrower diameter have a faster speed of conduction.

10 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

11 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

12 / 20

After an action potential has fired, the refractory period acts as the following:

  • a) Prevents action potentials overlapping
  • b) Limit the frequency of action potentials
  • c) Limit the size of action potentials
  • d) Makes action potentials travel unidirectionally.

13 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

14 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

15 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

16 / 20

True or false : Taxis is a directional movement

17 / 20

True or false : Kinesis is a random movement

18 / 20

What would be a suitable control for Went's experiment ?

19 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

20 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is humus?

2 / 20

Between stages D and E, what will happen to light intensity at ground level?

3 / 20

What is lichen made out of ?

4 / 20

Which stage represents lichen and mosses?

5 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

6 / 20

How many samples should you take to get reliable data?

7 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

8 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

9 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'The specific role of a species within its habitat'?

10 / 20

Which type of selection is shown by Darwins finches, where small and large beaks were both at an advantage due to different food sources?

11 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

12 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of sufferers of Tay Sachs in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

13 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

14 / 20

What represents the total allele frequency in a population?

15 / 20

What does 'p' represent ?

16 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

17 / 20

Being colour blind is a sex-linked disorder. What is the probability of an unaffected male having a colour- blind child with a heterozygous female?

18 / 20

Which chromosome carries the sex linked alleles?

19 / 20

A codominant allele' is when both alleles are expressed. One breed of chickens can have Black feathers(B) or White feathers(W). What phenotype will a chicken have with the genotype BW ?

20 / 20

In Guinea pigs, ginger(G) hair is dominant to white(g), and short hair (S) is dominant to long (s). In the following cross: GgSs and GgSS, what percentage chance will the offspring being born long haired and ginger?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

2 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

3 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

4 / 20

Which enzyme can join two complementary sticky ends together during genetic modification?

5 / 20

How would the cDNA base sequence of a gene differ to the normal genomic base sequence of a gene?

6 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

7 / 20

A methyl group has the structure CH3. Methylation is the addition of a methyl group onto what?

8 / 20

What are iPS cells?

9 / 20

Which molecule does the SIRNA / protein complex (RISC) bind to?

10 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

11 / 20

At the start of transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

12 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA codon. In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a peptide bond is formed between the carried amino acids.

These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid. Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

13 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

14 / 20

Methylation of DNA is when a methyl group ( CH3) is added onto CpG bases ( cytosine and guanine next to each other). This can stop DNA polymerase from binding.

What effect will increased methylation (Hypermethylation) have on transcription?

15 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

16 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

17 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

18 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

19 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

20 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

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