Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

40

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Around 10,000 years ago, humans developed the ability to make lactase in adulthood, and so were able to digest diary products.

2 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

3 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - No end plates on these cells

4 / 20

What unit do we use to measure the concentration of oxygen in the tissue?

5 / 20

Which number represents cells that can control water loss?

6 / 20

Other than surface area to volume ratio, which is an example of a physiological adaptation, which allows an animal to live at hotter temperatures?

7 / 20

What is the surface area to volume ratio of a spongy mesophyll cell with the surface area of 24,000 µm 2, and a volume of 110,000µm 3?

8 / 20

What is the volume of the same roughly spherical spongy mesophyll cell with a diameter of 80 µm, using the formula Volume=4/3 pi r 3?

9 / 20

What is the primary function of a vaccination?

10 / 20

Which type of cell travels to the site of infection, and secretes a chemical which kills infected cells?

11 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

12 / 20

Which term describes a solution with a lower water potential than the cells bathed in it?

13 / 20

Which type of membrane protein is not involved in facilitated diffusion?

14 / 20

Which part is hydrophobic?

15 / 20

Bacterial cell division creates.

16 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

17 / 20

What charge will be on the hydrogen atoms in this molecule?

18 / 20

In a section of double stranded DNA, there were 62 bases. Of these, 20 were A. How many of the bases were C?

19 / 20

What is the difference in the pentose sugar in DNA, compared to RNA?

20 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

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31

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What word best describes this molecule?

2 / 20

What charge will be on the hydrogen atoms in this molecule?

3 / 20

What type of reaction is involved in the breakdown of ATP?

4 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Dispersive method ( fragments from each strand mixed), what would the DNA bands look like after two generations in N14 medium (Tube B)?

5 / 20

If DNA replicated by a Conservative method, what would the DNA bands look like after one generation in N14 medium(Tube A)?

6 / 20

In this experiment bacteria grown in N15, were then treansfered to N14, and allowed to divide for two generations ( tubeB). Describe what the cenrifuged DNA bands would look like.

7 / 20

What base does the 'A' stand for?

8 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled C.

9 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled A

10 / 20

Explain how non-competitive inhibitors reduce rate.

11 / 20

How do you reduce the effect of a competitive inhibitor?

12 / 20

Which bonds are disrupted by changes in pH?

13 / 20

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by doing what?

14 / 20

What is wrong with amino acid C?

15 / 20

What is the name of the NH2 group on an amino acid molecule?

16 / 20

It is highly branched, what type of glycosidic bond form the base of the branches?

17 / 20

Starch is insoluble. What is that advantage of being insoluble?

18 / 20

Is one of the monomers beta glucose ?

19 / 20

What type of bond forms between two monosaccharides?

20 / 20

Are molecules A,B and C isomers of each other?

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15

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

A doctor vaccinated a group of patients against poliomyelitis. He gave each patient two doses of vaccine, 3 months apart. Explain the differences between the mean concentrations of antibodies in blood samples 2 and 3.

2 / 20

Digested pathogen proteins can be displayed on the cell surface membrane of a phagocyte. What is this called?

Type your answer.

3 / 20

In the above diagram of three cells, will water move from :

4 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where facilitated diffusion occurs?

5 / 20

In the above diagram, there are three membrane proteins: A, B and C. Which represents where co-transport occurs?

6 / 20

True or False: In order to function, carrier proteins have to change shape.

7 / 20

What type of molecules are most likely to pass through C?

8 / 20

Name structure G.

9 / 20

What substance will structure C be made out of?

10 / 20

In a garlic root tip squash, a student observed 124 cells, of which 19 has visible chromosomes. What was the mitotic index for that tissue?

11 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

12 / 20

To look at a sample under a microscope, you need to prepare a temporary mount. Why does the specimen have to be thin?

13 / 20

To look at a fresh sample under a light microscope, you'll need to prepare a temporary mount. What is NOT used to stick the specimen to the microscope slide?

14 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

15 / 20

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

16 / 20

True or false : Prokaryotic DNA coils around histones.

17 / 20

Name part C

18 / 20

Name structure B

19 / 20

What ISN'T organelle A?

20 / 20

What is the main function of this organelle?

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6

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

At the sink, solutes are removed from the phloem, what effect does this have on water movement?

2 / 20

The Mass Flow Hypothesis, is the best explanation for translocation in plants. What does it suggest happens at 'sources'?

3 / 20

What is the tap and water reservoir above it for?

4 / 20

What term is used to describe the 'sticking' together of water molecules?

5 / 20

Xylem or Phloem ? - This type of cell is carries dissolved organic substances both up and down the plant

6 / 20

Why are the Atrioventricular valves open at D?

7 / 20

What is a Thrombosis?

8 / 20

What has happened at position C?

9 / 20

Name the structures labelled A

10 / 20

In the diagram of the human circulatory system, which letter represents the Pulmonary Vein?

11 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

12 / 20

Oxygen diffuses out of the tracheoles directly into what?

13 / 20

Which letter represents the part that can control water loss?

14 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

15 / 20

What is 'Tidal Volume'?

16 / 20

What effect does emphysema have on the alveoli?

17 / 20

Some animals are adapted to a lower environmental temperature. Which of the following is an example of this?

18 / 20

How have multicellular organisms adapted to not being able to absorb everything via diffusion over their surface?

19 / 20

Why can single celled organisms exchange many substances by simple diffusion over the plasma membrane?

20 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. You have chosen one which will decolourise the quickest, why did you choose that block?

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2

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is true about all mutagenic agents?

2 / 20

Some gene mutations will have no effect at all on the polypeptide, why not?

3 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

4 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

5 / 20

The goat cardiomyocyte has 30 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromatids will be present in each cell formed at the end of meiosis Telophase 2?

6 / 20

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

7 / 20

Is Anaphase 2 more similar to Anaphase 1, or Anaphase in mitosis?

8 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

9 / 20

Which number represents prophase 1 of meiosis?

10 / 20

There are now two identical copies of each chromosome, held together by the centromere. Which term best describes these identical copies?

11 / 20

Before meiosis starts, the primary spermatocyte or oocyte replicates its chromosomes and organelles. What is this phase called?

12 / 20

What word do we use to describe the pairs of chromosomes?

13 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

14 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

15 / 20

Where does translation take place?

16 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

17 / 20

What do we call a section of DNA which does not carry a code for a functional RNA or amino acid?

18 / 20

Which word does NOT describe the genetic code?

 

19 / 20

What is a gene?

20 / 20

Describe how prokaryotic DNA is stored

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Year 13

37

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

3 / 20

What is the difference between 'totipotent' stem cells and 'Pluripotent' stem cells?

4 / 20

What effect will siRNA have on expression of a gene?

5 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

6 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

7 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

8 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

9 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

10 / 20

What effect does high concentrations of IAA have on shoot tip tissue?

11 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the uptake of water by a plant

12 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

13 / 20

What does GPP stand for?

14 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

15 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

16 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

17 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

18 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

19 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

20 / 20

Which substance goes on to create other organic molecules?

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4

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Some fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. What are these fungi/root structures called?

2 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

3 / 20

What does GPP represent in a given area?

4 / 20

Which of the following is NOT an accurate way of measuring biomass?

5 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

6 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

7 / 20

Is the column for the link reaction in the above diagram correct?

8 / 20

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

9 / 20

Molecule Z represents ATP. How is this molecule of ATP generated?

10 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

11 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. The mutant plants produced more chlorophyll b . The scientists predicted the mutant plants would grow better in any light intensity; why might this be?

12 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. Why did the scientists measure the rate of oxygen produced?

13 / 20

Name substance A

14 / 20

What does molecule 'H' represent?

15 / 20

Once light has hit structure D, and the electrons have left the chlorophyll, they can either be passed on to form F or follow path 'G'. What is path 'G'?

16 / 20

What type of molecule is represented by 'C'?

17 / 20

Where does the energy needed for the splitting of water originate?

18 / 20

The splitting of water at PSII creates molecules A & B, what do A and B represent?

19 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

20 / 20

Name structure E

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9

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One form of muscle disease is caused by a mutated allele of a gene. This leads to production of myosin molecules that are unable to bind to other myosin molecules. If myosin molecules are unable to bind to other myosin molecules, this prevents muscle contraction. Suggest why.

2 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

3 / 20

When the layers of connective tissue are pressed, what happens to the neurone membrane?

4 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

5 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

6 / 20

Using the diagram, name E

7 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

8 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

9 / 20

Cells wrapped around peripheral neurones contain a membrane with a high content of a fatty substance forming a sheath.

What is the name of this fatty substance? ( Type your answer).

10 / 20

True or False: If too few sodium channels are opened by a stimulus on an neurone membrane, then no action potential is generated.

11 / 20

Which of the events ( A- F above) requires ATP ? ( Type the letter in the box)

12 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

13 / 20

The resting potential of a neurone is maintained in part, by the Sodium-potassium pump. But which of the following shows the correct movement of the ions?

14 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, how would you make the method more valid?

15 / 20

True or False : Taxis is when an organism either moves faster in harsh conditions or turns less in harsh conditions.

16 / 20

True or False : Kinesis is a directional response to a stimulus.

17 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

18 / 20

What does Darwin's experiment where he placed a black cover over the tip show?

19 / 20

How does IAA bring about this effect?

20 / 20

What affect does IAA have on shoot tips?

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4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false: Succession only happens on land?

2 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

3 / 20

Which method would you use to see if there is a correlation between profile height and percentage cover of marsh grass?

 

4 / 20

What should you use to estimate a population of a sessile organism?

5 / 20

True or False : Two different species cannot occupy the same niche?

6 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

7 / 20

Natural selection can change allele frequencies over time, due to those with the best alleles surviving and reproducing. What is the term used to describe the 'chance' or 'random' selection of alleles in a population?

8 / 20

An alteration in bird calls caused by difference in beak size, preventing mating calls between individuals of the same population is an example of what type of speciation?

9 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, increase around a middle or mid value, and outliers decrease?

10 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

11 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

12 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

13 / 20

An Ethiopian breed of cattle has low whey protein in its milk. This is controlled by a dominant allele (M). If 6 % of the herd have low whey protein, what proportion are heterozygotes?

14 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a particular time' is the definition for what?

15 / 20

What is the definition of a species?

16 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

17 / 20

18 / 20

If two genes are on the same chromosome, how do we say they are linked?

19 / 20

What is an autosome?

20 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

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6

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If you start with a single copy of template DNA, how many copies would you have after 10 cycles?

2 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

3 / 20

We cannot see the proteins made by recombinant plasmids, nor the plasmids themselves. How do we know the bacteria have been transformed properly and contain a recombinant plasmid ( = plasmid and new gene fragment) ?

4 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

5 / 20

What are iPS cells?

6 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns on ' genes?

7 / 20

The mRNA travels to the ribosome, where it feeds between the two subunits, exposing the template bases. tRNA molecules each carry a specific amino acid at the top, with a complementary sequence of three bases called an anti-codon at the bottom. The tRNA anticodons then complementary base pair with the mRNA ____8____.

In the ribosome there are 3 binding sites for tRNA, two where a ____9____ bond is formed between the carried amino acids. These amino acids then form a ____10_____ chain which leaves the ribosome. The third site is a departure site, where the tRNA which has released its amino acid departs to pick up a new amino acid.

Once the entire mRNA sequence has been ____11____, it can either pass into another ribosome to make another polypeptide or be degraded.

8 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

9 / 20

If a tumour suppressor gene mutates, then it can mean the protein it codes for is non-functional. What will happen to the rate of mitosis if this happens?

10 / 20

Cancer is often caused by a mutation causing a cell to divide uncontrollably and spread into other tissues. Name the gene that normally slows or reduces cell division:

11 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

12 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

13 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

14 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

15 / 20

If a section of DNA contains 21% base C, what percentage will base A have?

16 / 20

Which direction can DNA polymerase only extend the new strand of DNA?

17 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

18 / 20

Which two molecules does DNA Polymerase join together?

19 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

20 / 20

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

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