Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

62

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

2 / 20

In an homologous pair of chromosomes, would alleles be...

3 / 20

How would you describe the shape of prokaryotic chromosome, when compared to a eukaryotic chromosome?

4 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has a folded endothelium?

5 / 20

What do we call the arteries which supply the heart muscle?

6 / 20

What is a xerophyte?

7 / 20

Which muscles are contracted when you inhale?

8 / 20

What shape is the diaphragm when it is contracted?

9 / 20

Is it important which way round the numbers go when writing a ratio?

10 / 20

Name the contents found in C.

11 / 20

In the above experiment, two flasks contained identical masses of animal tissue, identical volume of a solution containing sodium ions, but an inhibitor of ATP production in flask F. Calculate the rate of the uptake of sodium ions in flask G, in the first 20 minutes.

12 / 20

What effect does having more of molecule 'I' have on the membrane?

13 / 20

Name part C

14 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

15 / 20

Which of the following terms best describes the phosphate part of a phospholipid?

16 / 20

Which monomer is the animal storage polysaccharide made out of ?

17 / 20

What feature does this polysaccharide have, that makes it straight?

18 / 20

What type of bond forms amylose?

19 / 20

Which disaccharide is made from glucose and galactose?

20 / 20

Which molecule is NOT glucose ?

Your score is

0%

37

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

An ion with a negative charge is called an anion. Which of the following is NOT an anion?

2 / 20

What type of bond forms between water molecules?

3 / 20

Which process requires the use of ATP?

4 / 20

How many bonds form between the Bases C and G when the base pair?

5 / 20

Will increasing the concentration of substrate cause an increase in the rate of an enzyme inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor?

6 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a non-competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

7 / 20

Explain why line B forms a plateau:

8 / 20

If everything else was kept the same, what effect would adding more enzyme have on the position of the line?

9 / 20

What is the area of an enzyme called where the substrate binds?

10 / 20

The sample needs to be treated before adding the regent. How does it need to be treated?

11 / 20

More than two amino acids joined together is called what?

12 / 20

Glycine and Alanine are two common amino acids. How are their structures different to each other?

13 / 20

What is the name of the NH2 group on an amino acid molecule?

14 / 20

Which best represents the hydrophobic area on this diagram?

15 / 20

What is the standard structure of a phospholipid?

16 / 20

This component of starch is coiled. What is the advantage to the organism storing it?

17 / 20

What type of bond forms between the monomers in starch?

18 / 20

Does this diagram show a glycosidic bond?

19 / 20

What type of bond forms between two monosaccharides?

20 / 20

What type of sugar is fructose?

Your score is

0%

24

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

What is the primary function of a vaccination?

2 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

3 / 20

Which of the following is a similarity between diffusion an osmosis?

4 / 20

When investigating osmosis, you often need to make different concentrations of solute solution. Describe how you would make up 30 ml of 0.15 mol dm -3,from 1 mol dm -3 stock solution.

5 / 20

Is a higher water potential...

6 / 20

Other than glucose, which substance can be absorbed from the ileum via co-transport?

7 / 20

Put these letters in the correct order

8 / 20

Which phase is when the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

9 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes condense?

10 / 20

Which phase of mitosis is when the chromosomes line up along the equator?

 

11 / 20

Name the area where the sister chromosomes together, and attach to the spindle fibres here. (Spell it correctly)

12 / 20

At which time does mitosis take place?

13 / 20

Between which times does synthesis take place?

14 / 20

As well as being cold, what must the solution also be?

15 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

16 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

17 / 20

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

18 / 20

Which of these structures is completely absent in eukaryotic cells?

19 / 20

Name structure A

20 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

Your score is

0%

9

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

At the sink, solutes are removed from the phloem, what effect does this have on water movement?

2 / 20

In the mass flow hypothesis, the water potential is reduced in the phloem near the sources. What will happen to water movement?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of a 'sink' ?

4 / 20

Which would not increase the volume of water transpired by the plant?

5 / 20

How does an increase in wind speed, increase the rate of transpiration?

6 / 20

What has happened at position C?

7 / 20

Which chamber do you think the green line represents?

8 / 20

Cardiac Output ( CO) = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate ( HR). What is the cardiac output of an athlete with a SV of 95 cm3 , and a HR of 52 bpm?

9 / 20

Is there a significant difference between risk of CVD smoking -19 cigarettes a day and more than 20 cigarettes a day?

10 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has the thickest muscular layer?

11 / 20

Which type of blood vessel has a folded endothelium?

12 / 20

Once blood leaves arteries, which type of blood vessel will it enter?

13 / 20

What is it called, when Carbon Dioxide causes the dissociation curve to shift?

14 / 20

What term describes the haem groups which contain iron?

15 / 20

Which number represents a stoma?

16 / 20

Which number represents the layer where gaseous exchange happens in plants?

17 / 20

Oxygen diffuses out of the tracheoles directly into what?

18 / 20

Many species of fish have developed a technique to allow a constant flow of oxygenated water over the gills, even when stationary. This is called Buccal Pumping, how does it work?

19 / 20

If someone's PVR is 1.5dm3 min -1, and their tidal volume is 150 cm 3, how many breaths do they take in a minute?

20 / 20

If we assume a spongy mesophyll cell is approximately a sphere. Using the formula 4 pi r 2 , what is its surface area if its diameter is 80 µm?

Your score is

0%

6

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false : The most effective antibiotic for E Coli O121 will also be the most effective antibiotic for EColi K1.

2 / 20

What do we mean by 'Evolution' in biological terms?

3 / 20

Why do the modern day population of Tristan De Cunha has a much higher than average incidence of the genetic disorder Retinitis Pigmentosa?

4 / 20

True or false : The Founder Effect is a type of genetic drift?

5 / 20

Which of the following is the result of a chromosome mutation?

6 / 20

Which of the following gene mutations will have the least dramatic effect on the polypeptide produced?

7 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACCTTGG

8 / 20

What type of mutation is this ? ACCTGG becomes ACGTGG

9 / 20

What is a gene mutation?

10 / 20

What is the main cause of variation between siblings?

11 / 20

How many different combinations of maternal / paternal chromosomes are there if there are 23 pairs?

12 / 20

During Metaphase 1, the homologous pairs can line up with either the paternal chromosome above, or the maternal chromosome above. What is this phenomenon called?

13 / 20

On this diagram, what does D represent?

14 / 20

What word describes cells which contain single chromosomes?

15 / 20

As the mRNA is fed through the ribosome, complementary base pairing between the mRNA and tRNA mean that amino acids are lined up in a specific order. What level of protein structure is established here ?

16 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

17 / 20

What is the name of the modification of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

18 / 20

True or False : The same three bases of DNA (or RNA) code for the same amino acid in every organism ever discovered.

19 / 20

What is the proteome of a cell?

20 / 20

What is the genome of a cell?

Your score is

0%

Year 13

48

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

2 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

3 / 20

Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA?

4 / 20

The deoxyribose sugar at the end of a DNA molecule can either have a bond available to join with carbon number 3 ( 3' or 3 prime) or carbon number 5 (5' or 5 prime). DNA polymerase can only join to one end, which end can it bind to and then extend?

5 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

6 / 20

7 / 20

Which of the events (A - F above) starts depolarisation? Type the letter in the box

8 / 20

What has happened at stage 5?

9 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

10 / 20

Which process can occur due to the actions of Nitrosomonas bacteria?

11 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

12 / 20

This diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle. Which two processes form nitrification?

13 / 20

Which term describes an organism which feeds on dead organic matter and digests their food externally? (watch your spelling)

14 / 20

The student found that the coloured liquid moved 1.5 cm in 24 hours. The diameter of the lumen (hole) of the capillary tubing was 1 mm.The volume of a capillary tubing is given by πr2l, where π is 3.14 and l = length. Calculate the volume of gas produced in cm3 hour-1.

15 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

16 / 20

In this investigation, are the yeast respiring anaerobically or aerobically ?

17 / 20

Once 'W' reaches protein complex VI, what does it combine with to form water?

18 / 20

Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?

19 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

20 / 20

Name structure B

Your score is

0%

5

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration and produce nitrogen gas. Are the vast majority aerobic or anaerobic?

2 / 20

This diagram shows part of the Nitrogen cycle. Name process E

3 / 20

Suggest the most appropriate units for primary productivity.

4 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

5 / 20

The above apparatus was left in a water bath until it reached a constant temperature. It was then left for one hour before starting. Why was it left for one hour before starting?

6 / 20

Is this the correct equation for anaerobic respiration in animal cells? : Glucose → Carbon Dioxide + Lactic Acid

7 / 20

Is the column for the ETC reaction in the above diagram correct?

8 / 20

Using the ETC, how many molecules of ATP can each reduced FAD generate?

9 / 20

The ETC develops a proton gradient as the electrons pass through. What is the process of these protons moving down an electrochemical gradient called?

10 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

11 / 20

How many molecules of reduced NAD ( or NADH) are generated in aerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose?

12 / 20

If 5 glucose molecules are respired, how many molecules of CO2 will be produced from Glycolysis, Link reaction and the Krebs cycle?

13 / 20

A single molecule of W is produced per turn of the Krebs cycle, and it carries hydrogen off to the ETC. What is it?

14 / 20

How many times does the Krebs cycle happen per glucose molecule?

15 / 20

What is represented by molecule C?

16 / 20

What happens to molecule Y during the conversion of triose phosphate to molecule X?

17 / 20

In the above experiment, a 'starting line' is drawn in pencil. What is the name of the starting line - The ______(spell it correctly!)

18 / 20

The solution in the above experiment had the same water potential, why is this important?

19 / 20

How many molecules of D are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

20 / 20

How many molecules of C are required to produce one molecule of glucose?

Your score is

0%

11

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The muscle filament in the above diagram is relaxed, what would happen to the following zones when it contracts?

2 / 20

The cone density is highest on the fovea in the centre of the retina. In a human fovea there are 150 000 cones per mm2. The diameter of a human fovea is 1.2 mm. Calculate the number of cones on the human fovea.

3 / 20

Point C is the point where most colour sensitive photoreceptor cells are located. What is it called?

4 / 20

What type of sodium channels are opened when a Pacinian corpuscle is stimulated?

5 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

6 / 20

What effect do inhibitory synapses have on the post-synaptic membrane?

7 / 20

Using the diagram, name C

8 / 20

Axons with a wider diameter axon have...

9 / 20

True or False - The speed of conduction along an unmyelinated neurone is around 5 m/s ( jogging pace).

10 / 20

Why is the speed of conduction faster on myelinated neurones?

11 / 20

What is the main function of the fatty substance wrapped around peripheral nerve axons?

12 / 20

In order for an action potential to be triggered, a certain number of sodium channels must open, each setting a change in the potential difference.

What name is given to this change in potential difference that must be reached ? (Type your answer)

13 / 20

Name stage 5 on the above diagram ( spell it carefully!)

14 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

15 / 20

After a stimulation has occurred, why do ions move out of an axon?

16 / 20

In a resting neurone, why do potassium ions move out via ion channels?

17 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

18 / 20

Maggots follow a scent up a concentration gradient towards a food source. Is this taxis or kinesis?

19 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

20 / 20

What response do roots have to light?

Your score is

0%

4

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which type of plants are more likely to be the pioneer species in secondary succession?

2 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

3 / 20

Is predation a biotic or abiotic factor that effects population size?

4 / 20

Was the cold winter an example of an abiotic factor or a biotic one?

5 / 20

What is the word used to describe 'All the different populations in a habitat along with all the abiotic conditions'?

6 / 20

What type of population does genetic drift have the greatest effect on?

7 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

8 / 20

Which type of selection is when the number of individuals with a particular characteristic, split into two groups?

9 / 20

Natural Selection means that over time the frequency of beneficial alleles in a population will do what?

10 / 20

Natural Selection is when organisms which are better adapted are more likely to survive and pass on their genes. Factors which affect the chance of survival are called selection pressures. These can be positive ( advantageous) or negative ( disadvantageous). Which of these is a negative selection pressure?

11 / 20

What is 'crossing over'?

12 / 20

Which of these is a source of variation?

 

13 / 20

Which of the following is a cause of variation?

14 / 20

In peppered moths, having light coloured wings is dominant. In Sheffield (an industrial northern town in the UK) a sample of moths was taken. The numbers collected were 73 light coloured , and 326 dark coloured. What is the allele frequency ( as a decimal) of the light allele in the population?

15 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has____.

16 / 20

What term describes when a characteristic is controlled by more than one gene, and the expression of one gene will effect the expression of others?

17 / 20

What is the probability of a colour- blind father and a homozygous dominant female having a colour blind child?

18 / 20

Which sex is the carrier of sex lined genes?

19 / 20

Marfan Syndrome ( TGF Beta) is dominant (T) to the healthy recessive allele(t) . Having a V shaped hairline (V) is dominant to having a straight hairline (v). What is the percentage probability of the offspring of a father = TtVv and a mother = TtVv would have Marfan Syndrome and a straight hair - line ?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'phenotype'?

Your score is

0%

10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

2 / 20

Apart from the desired gene sequence, what else needs to be added to a recombinant plasmid in order for it to be expressed by bacteria?

3 / 20

If we cut out a human gene using restriction enzymes and ligate it into a plasmid using ligase, then that plasmid is now 'Recombinant'. What do we call the process of putting the recombinant plasmid into bacteria?

4 / 20

What bond does DNA ligase create?

5 / 20

What do we call it if the restriction enzyme cuts both strands of DNA in a staggered position to create an overhang?

6 / 20

What do we call enzymes that cut DNA at specific base sequences?

7 / 20

iPS cells can be made from adult somatic cells. What are somatic cells?

8 / 20

Which type of stem cells are not found in adults?

9 / 20

What does the 'si' stand for in siRNA?

10 / 20

What is the removal of introns called?

11 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

12 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a proto-oncogene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

13 / 20

If hypermethylation happens to a tumour suppressor gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis?

14 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents.

These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

15 / 20

What type of mutation causes a sequence of bases to be reversed?

16 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

Will this mutation affect the primary structure of the polypeptide ?

17 / 20

Name the method by which DNA replicates.

18 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

19 / 20

Name the type of bond which forms the backbone of the DNA strand.

20 / 20

Name the type of reaction that joins the nucleotides together.

Your score is

0%