Biology Random Retrieval

Year 12

82

Biology Year 12 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 12 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

True or false - The Founder Effect is a type of genetic bottle neck?

2 / 20

What is the base-pairing pattern in DNA to RNA?

3 / 20

On this diagram, what does A represent?

4 / 20

What is a Thrombosis?

5 / 20

The diagram shows an insect respiratory system. Which letter represents the tracheoles?

6 / 20

How is a concentration gradient maintained between the alveolar space and the blood?

7 / 20

What is the correct term for the cells which make up the alveolar wall?

8 / 20

Beetroot is a purple vegetable, the cells of which contain a pigment called Betalain. 4 tubes are set up with water and beetroot incubated at different temperatures: 20, 40, 60 and 80 0C. What is the dependent variable of this experiment?

9 / 20

What happens in G2 phase?

10 / 20

As well as being cold, what must the solution also be?

11 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

12 / 20

True or False: The circular chromosome can only replicate once per division, but the plasmids can replicate multiple times.

13 / 20

Many important substances in biological systems are ionic. What property of water allows these substances to dissolve and make water a good solvent?

14 / 20

Name the pentose sugar found in DNA.

15 / 20

Where do competitive inhibitors bind ?

16 / 20

Which letter on the above graph shows when the most enzyme-substrate complexes will be formed?

17 / 20

On the above diagram, which letter represents the activation energy with an enzyme?

18 / 20

What colour shows a positive result?

19 / 20

What do we mean by the 'Primary Structure' of a protein?

20 / 20

Which monomer is the animal storage polysaccharide made out of ?

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42

Biology Molecules Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Biology Molecules section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Water has a high specific heat capacity, why is this useful to organisms?

2 / 20

Many important substances in biological systems are ionic. What property of water allows these substances to dissolve and make water a good solvent?

3 / 20

What charge will be on the hydrogen atoms in this molecule?

4 / 20

What does ATP stand for?

5 / 20

In this experiment bacteria were grown in a growth medium containing N15. What isN15?

6 / 20

Which of the following is not true of RNA?

7 / 20

The direction each DNA strand is facing is often called 5 prime (written 5') or 3 prime (written 3'). What does this refer to?

8 / 20

What base does the 'T' stand for?

9 / 20

On the above diagram, name the group labelled C.

10 / 20

Where do non-competitive inhibitors bind?

11 / 20

Describe what the line would look like when a competitive inhibitor was added to the reaction.

12 / 20

Which letter represents the enzyme-substrate complex in this diagram?

13 / 20

What colour shows a positive result?

14 / 20

Other than peptide bonds, a folded protein also contains: i)Hydrogen Bonds ii) Ionic Bonds iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges. Which type of bond/bonds form and hold the Tertiary Structure of a protein in place?

i) Hydrogen Bonds
ii) Ionic Bonds
iii) Di-Sulphide Bridges.

Which type of bond/bonds form and hold the Tertiary Structure of a protein in place?

15 / 20

Water is produced during the bonding of two amino acids. Where do the hydrogen and oxygen molecules originate from?

16 / 20

What substance is added to the sample at the start of a test for lipids?

17 / 20

Starch is insoluble. What is that advantage of being insoluble?

18 / 20

What is the main structural difference between Amylose and Amylopectin?

19 / 20

Are molecules A,B and C isomers of each other?

20 / 20

Molecule D is NOT alpha glucose. What is wrong with it ?

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27

Cells Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Cells section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a lysosome?

2 / 20

On the diagram above, which structure is a phagosome?

3 / 20

During phagocytosis, the pathogen is detected by molecule A on the cell surface membrane. What are the molecules labelled A called?

4 / 20

True or false : Facilitated diffusion can use channel proteins or transport proteins, but active transport only uses transport proteins.

5 / 20

Give an example of a molecule which would pass through F

6 / 20

Which molecule makes up part D?

7 / 20

If you were to investigate mitosis in plant tissue, which part of a plant would you choose to look at?

8 / 20

Between which times does synthesis take place?

9 / 20

Which organelle will be found in pellet A?

10 / 20

Which type of electron microscope produced this image?

11 / 20

Which type of electron microscope can be used on a thick specimen?

12 / 20

The Christae of the mitochondrion shown in this picture are 2m x 10-8wide (A). How many 'nm' is this ?

13 / 20

Which of the following is bigger - 40m x 10-10 or 5mm x 10 -7 , or 5m x 10-10

14 / 20

Which of the following is equivalent to 1mm x 10-4 ?

15 / 20

Are structures 'E' found on rough endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotes?

16 / 20

What substance is layer B made out of?

17 / 20

What substance is layer A made out of?

18 / 20

Name the function of organelle A

19 / 20

What is the function of this organelle?

20 / 20

Name this organelle.

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11

Exchanges of Substances with the Environment Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Exchanges of Substances with the Environment section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

If a small tube is inserted into the phloem through the bark of a tree, sap containing sucrose leaks out. Where on the tree will the most sap leak from due to the highest hydrostatic pressure?

2 / 20

Water molecules stick together due to what type of bond?

3 / 20

The evaporation of water molecules out of the leaf, 'pulls' the water molecules behind up. What is this 'pull' called ?

4 / 20

What is an Atheroma?

5 / 20

What has happened at position A?

6 / 20

Which chamber do you think the blue line represents?

7 / 20

As blood moves away from the heart, it travels in which type of blood vessel?

8 / 20

In which direction ( if any), would a curve be for diving seal haemoglobin?

9 / 20

During the Bohr Effect, what happens to the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?

10 / 20

If Carbon Dioxide concentration increases, which letter shows the direction the curve will shift?

11 / 20

Where in a human, is the saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen the lowest?

12 / 20

Where in a human, is the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen the highest?

13 / 20

Why is haemoglobin described as being 'Quaternary'?

14 / 20

Using the diagram, which part is a lamella?

15 / 20

What is 'Tidal Volume'?

16 / 20

Why would someone with Pulmonary Fibrosis have a reduced rate of oxygen diffusion?

17 / 20

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) is the maximum volume of air that can be breathed out in 1 second. What is the FEV for person B?

18 / 20

Which two letters would be held open by C shaped cartilage rings?

19 / 20

Some animals are adapted to higher temperatures in their environment. Which of the following is an example of this ?

20 / 20

Cresol red is an indicator which goes clear at a low pH. A plate of agar jelly with cresol red added was made, and two blocks were cut out. Block A measured 10mm x 10mm x 10mm. Block B measured 20mm x 7mm x 7mm. Are they a similar volume (within 5% difference)?

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11

Genetic Variation & Information Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Genetic Variation & Information section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

How do Microbiologists test for bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics?

2 / 20

Babiana Ringens is a South African plant, which flowers on the ground. They are pollinated by birds, so to attract them they have evolved a sturdy stalk with no leaves or flowers which acts as a bird perch.

3 / 20

In Biology, what does genetic diversity represent in a population?

 

4 / 20

Which of the following can be a mutagenic agent?

5 / 20

Which of the following is a mutagenic agent?

6 / 20

A sheep cheek cell which is not dividing has 54 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present during Meiotic Prophase 1 in the testes?

7 / 20

During recombination ( crossing over), genetic material can be swapped between which two structures?

8 / 20

How is variation introduced during prophase 1?

9 / 20

How does metaphase 1, differ from metaphase 2 in meiosis?

10 / 20

What type of bond forms between the amino acids?

11 / 20

How many tRNA molecules can fit into a ribosome at any time?

12 / 20

In translation, a molecule called tRNA carries a three letter code. What are they called ?

13 / 20

Where does modification of pre-mRNA occur?

14 / 20

In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is modified by removing what?

15 / 20

Where does the enzyme used in transcription bind?

16 / 20

What is transcription?

17 / 20

What word describes the fact there is more than one set of three bases for each amino acid?

18 / 20

What is the position of gene on a chromosome called?

19 / 20

Which of the following carries the code for the order of amino acids?

20 / 20

Which of the following is not coded for by a gene?

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Year 13

55

Biology Year 13 Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the year 13 biology section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Using bacteria is an example of what type of DNA Amplification?

2 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

3 / 20

In humans, the zygote ( fertilised egg ) divides into a ball of cells called a Morula. What word describes the cells contained in a morula?

4 / 20

Which enzyme is used during transcription?

5 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

6 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes. The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil.

Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene. UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent.

It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

 

7 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

8 / 20

You can also use a transect to sample a population. When should a transect be used?

9 / 20

In hamsters two genes are autosomally linked : Fur and Eye colour . Where Ginger fur = G, and White fur =g. Black eyes = B and red eyes = b. In a cross between a homozygous recessive male for both traits and a heterozygous female for both traits , what would be the expected ratio of Ginger & Black eye, White and Black eye, ginger and red eye and white with red eyes?

10 / 20

The image above shows a muscle fibre. Name organelle E

11 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

12 / 20

In order for an action potential to be generated in a Pacinian corpuscle, what must happen?

13 / 20

Synaptic knobs contain mitochondria, which of the following is NOT a use of ATP in the presynaptic neurone?

14 / 20

On the diagram, which type of ion will D allow through when opened on an excitatory synapse?

15 / 20

The plasma membrane of a neurone at rest is most permeable to which ions via facilitated diffusion?

16 / 20

Anaerobic respiration allows the regeneration of NAD+ in all organisms, which allows glycolysis to continue. How many ATP's are gained during anaerobic respiration of one glucose molecule?

17 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

18 / 20

How many carbons are present in hexose bisphosphate?

19 / 20

Other than temperature and pH, give two factors that the student should keep constant in the above experiment.

20 / 20

High energy' electrons leave the chlorophyll molecule: What state does that leave the chlorophyll molecule in?

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7

The Transfer of Energy Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the The Transfer of Energy section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

The above diagram shows the Phosphorus cycle. Name type of organism which carries out process A?

2 / 20

True or False : Fungi can increase the surface area of roots

3 / 20

The diagram shows an Arctic food web. The arctic fox consumes a 35% share of the primary consumers, with the Gulls and skuas consuming 65%. The arctic fox achieves a 9% energy efficiency, from the total primary consumers productivity of 6,112kJ m-2yr-1. What is the productivity of the arctic fox?

4 / 20

What would be the most appropriate units for measuring biomass?

5 / 20

Which direction would the bubble move in the above experiment?

6 / 20

Is the column for glycolysis in the above diagram correct?

7 / 20

How many molecules of ATP are generated in aerobic respiration from one glucose molecule entering glycolysis, to the end of the ETC?

 

8 / 20

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

9 / 20

Which part of the mitochondria is represented by B?

10 / 20

Where does the Electron Transfer Chain ( ETC) occur?

11 / 20

Isocitrate dehydrogenase is an enzyme used in the Krebs cycle to convert Citrate into the 5C intermediate. IDH1 is an inhibitor of Isocitrate dehydrogenase. What would happen to the volume of Carbon dioxide produced by cells exposed to IDH1?

12 / 20

How many carbons are present in triose phosphate?

13 / 20

What is the first process to happen in glycolysis?

14 / 20

In the above experiment, chloroplasts were isolated from plants grown at different light intensities. What is the saturation point of Normal plants grown in high light?

15 / 20

A buffer was not used in the above experiment, what would happen to the pH during the experiment.

16 / 20

In the above experiment, what measurements should the student take to measure the rate of photosynthesis?

17 / 20

Which substance is represented by I?

18 / 20

Which chemical does 'E' represent?

19 / 20

Why can it be advantageous to a plant for more of process 'G' to occur?

20 / 20

Which term best describes what happens to the electrons when light hits the primary pigment (or reaction centre)?

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12

Responding to Change Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Responding to Change section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

One role of ATP in muscle contraction is to provide the energy required for the 'powerstroke' of the myosin head. What is the other use of ATP in muscle contraction?

2 / 20

Name the molecule that carries out the function : Attaches to the Z line at the end of the sarcomere.

3 / 20

Which of the above diagrams represents the myofilaments a 'Z line' in muscle?

4 / 20

What is the structural adaptation which give cones high visual acuity compared to rod cells?

5 / 20

Layer B is the layer which contains the photoreceptor cells. What is it's name ? ( Type your answer).

6 / 20

Name part B on the above diagram (type your answer).

7 / 20

What is the stimulus detected by a Pacinian corpuscle? (type your answer)

8 / 20

On the diagram, F is a voltage gated ion channel on an excitatory synapse, but which type of ion does it allow through?

9 / 20

Name the term given to the 'jumping' of an action potential long a myelinated neurone.( Type in your answer)

10 / 20

Many peripheral neurones (including motor neurones)have cells wrapped around the axon.

What are these cells called? ( type your answer- watch your spelling).

11 / 20

True or False: If too few sodium channels are opened by a stimulus on an neurone membrane, then no action potential is generated.

12 / 20

The period of time after an action potential, when another action potential cannot pass along that section of a neurone is called the ____________ period ( Watch your spelling).

13 / 20

What causes a change in the type of channels that are open at stage '4' ?

14 / 20

In the above experiment, you hypothesised that a woodlouse responds by kinesis to a change in light intensity. What would be the best way to measure a response which shows kinesis?

15 / 20

In the above experiment on woodlice, what is the Independent variable?

16 / 20

Woodlice are more stationary with increased humidity. Is this taxis or kinesis?

17 / 20

Blow fly maggots have a light sensitive spot on their head, which they use to move away from light. Is this taxis or kinesis?

18 / 20

What does this experiment by Went show?

19 / 20

Which of these statements about Went's experiment is NOT true?

20 / 20

Which of the following is true?

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5

Populations, Evolutions & Genetics Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Populations, Evolutions & Genetics section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?

2 / 20

Between stages B and C, what will happen to soil depth?

3 / 20

Which of the following is an example of primary succession?

4 / 20

Using mark release recapture, what would the population of woodlice be if : 27 were caught in the first sample , and 16 unmarked caught in the second, and 3 were marked?

5 / 20

Which of the following is not an assumption that affects the accuracy of the Mark Release Recapture population estimate?

6 / 20

What is the equation for Mark Release Recapture?

7 / 20

A mild winter and a warm spring meant that the population of robins (birds which feed on insects) increased. This was due to the above average biomass of insects, so more young robins survived. However the following winter was very cold so fewer insects were available in the spring, and the robin population decreased. Is the decrease in robin population, intraspecific competition or interspecific competition?

8 / 20

Which of the following is an abiotic factor which effects population size?

9 / 20

Is the following an 'Abiotic adaptation' or a 'Biotic Adaptation': Monarch butterflies fly south when the number of daylight hours shorten?

10 / 20

Which of the following isn't an example of genetic drift?

11 / 20

What type of variation is show in the graph?

12 / 20

Tay Sachs is a recessive disease which leads to the build up of certain lipids which eventually become toxic. The Cajun community in the USA has an incidence of about 1 in every 3,500 births. What is the number of homozygous dominant healthy individuals in a Cajun population of 100,000 people?

13 / 20

The Hardy Weinberg principle only applies to a population that is or has ____.

14 / 20

Which statistical test would we use to see if the observed phenotypes are different from the expected phenotypes?

15 / 20

In the actual ratio of 6:1:1:6, there were more of the ginger and black eyed hamsters and more of the white with red eyed hamsters than expected. Therefore, there are proportionately fewer of the mixed traits (Ginger and red eyes and white with black eyes). What process allowed those few mixed trait offspring to occur?

16 / 20

What is an autosome?

17 / 20

Why are women far less likely to show sex linked disorders?

18 / 20

Marfan syndrome is a dominant inherited disorder, where the suffer develops an increase in a growth factor ( TGF - beta) which effects connective tissue. What is the probability of a healthy mother and a heterozygous father having a healthy child?

19 / 20

What is the best definition of a 'dominant allele'?

20 / 20

What is the definition of 'allele'?

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10

Control of Expression Random Retrieval

This quiz contains all the questions in the Control of Expression section. The website will pick 20 questions at random.

1 / 20

PCR allows DNA to replicate by semi-conservative replication. But what word best describes the rate at which it amplifies?

2 / 20

Why do we need two primers in PCR?

3 / 20

PCR is an example of what type of DNA amplification?

4 / 20

Usually the cut out gene is inserted into a vector. Which of the following is a vector for use in genetic modification of bacteria?

5 / 20

What bond does DNA ligase create?

6 / 20

What is the active site of a restriction endonuclease complementary too?

7 / 20

Which enzyme do we use to convert mRNA into cDNA?

8 / 20

Sometimes when trying to find a gene which important in a particular disease, it is useful to find out what genes the diseased cells have used (expressed) by extracting mRNA rather than DNA. However, mRNA cannot be used in genetic modifications. What do we need to change it into to be able to use it?

9 / 20

Which term is used to describe the full process of genetic code in DNA being turned into a polypeptide chain?

10 / 20

What forms the substrate in a Transcription complex formed from OOR and RNA Polymerase?

11 / 20

What do we call a transcription factor that 'turns off ' genes?

12 / 20

Where are transcription factors often stored?

13 / 20

What are the proteins called that also need to bind to activate RNA polymerase?

14 / 20

Which of the following describes the structure of DNA?

15 / 20

Long term exposure to Oestrogen can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. The exact mechanism is still not fully understood, but which of the following is definitely NOT a suggested mechanism ?

16 / 20

If hypomethylation (reduced methylation) happens to a proto-oncogenes gene, what effect will this have on the rate of mitosis ?

 

17 / 20

Fill in the missing word : Causes of Mutations A mutation is any change to the order of __12___ in the genetic code. These occur naturally as the enzyme _____13_____ replicates the DNA and makes mistakes.

The incidence can also be produced due to exposure to certain agents called mutagenic agents. These can be chemicals such as nitrous acid, which converts cytosine to uracil. Nitrous acid would therefore cause a __14___ mutation. Ethidium Bromide is used to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis. It can insert between bases, acting in a similar way to an addition mutation and therefore causing a __15___ along the rest of the gene.

UV radiation is also a mutagenic agent. It can cause bonds to form between pyrimidine bases ( thymine and cytosine). This bonding causes polymerases to misread or stop working all together at that point.

18 / 20

Which type of mutation will not cause a frameshift?

19 / 20

TTA = Leu TTG = Leu TTC = Phe TCA = Ser TAA = Stop Here is the original sequence : TTCTTGTTATCATAA. Here is a mutated sequence: TTCTTATTATCATAA.

What type of mutation has occurred ?

20 / 20

What does the C stand for in the genetic code?

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